Answer:
1770
Step-by-step explanation:
multiply the mass value by 1000
that is the easy way
Answer:
<h2>1 < x < 6 ⇒ x ∈ (1, 6)</h2>
Step-by-step explanation:
3x - 8 > -5 <em>add 8 to both sides</em>
3x > 3 <em>divide both sides by 3</em>
x > 1
2x - 7 < 5 <em>add 7 to both sides</em>
2x < 12 <em>divide both sides by 2</em>
x < 6
From x > 1 and x < 6 we have the solution 1 < x < 6 ⇒ x ∈ (1, 6)
Answer:
idk
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
The answer is 350 points
Step-by-step explanation:
The Area of a circle is πr∧2
The problem states that in the attempts, you never hit the outermost ring in the 10 attempts so we need the area of the 1cm and 2cm circles
Area of the 1st circle; π X 1∧2 = π
Area of the Second circle; π X 2∧2 = 4π
We also need the area which is the difference between the area of the 1cm and 2cm circle
4π - π = π
Points 50 = π/4π = 1/4
points 30 = 3π/4π = 3/4
For one attempt,
E(x) = 50 x 1/4 + 30 x 3/4
= 12.25 + 22.5
= 34.75
This is approximately 35
Therefor, 10 individual attempts will be 10 x 35 = 350
Anwser is B I got it right on the test