Answer:
Below.
Step-by-step explanation:
Working together the rate is 80 + 120 = 200 gallons per minute.
(a) Time to fill tank = 6000 / 200 = 30 minutes.
(b) Let length of time the small pipe was used be x minutes , the the large pipe was used for is 60-x minutes.
Volume delivered by small pipe = y gallons, and by large pipe = 6000-y gallons.
Rate for small pipe = 80 = y/x.
Rate for large pipe = 120 = (6000-y) / 60-x.
y/x = 80
(6000-y) / 60-x = 120
From first equation y = 80x so:
6000 - 80 x = 7200 - 120x
40x = 1200
x = 30
So time for small pipe = 30 and time for large on = 30 minutes also.
C. In a similar way to part B:
y/x = 120
(6000-y) / 34 - x = 200
(6000-120x) / 34 - x = 200
6000 - 120x = 6800 - 200x
80x = 800 so the large pipe on its own took 10 minutes and the small pipe was used for 34 - 10 = 24 minutes.
I'll guess the answer is <em>you can tell that pi is an irrational because it has a </em>non-terminating yet non-repeating decimal representation.<em>
</em>
Of course it's not clear how we tell this. We can't know for sure just by looking at the first trillion digits we've figured out whether it repeats or not. Someone told us it didn't, that's really how we know.
A coin has one of two outcomes: heads or tails.
Each has an equal probability of occurring, meaning that they each have a 50% chance to occur. (They need to add up to 100% because they include all the outcomes, divide that into two equal parts and...)
This is what we call theoretical probability. It's a guess as to how probability <em>should</em> work. Like in the experiment, it's not always going to be 50-50.
What <em>actually happens</em> is called experimental probability. This may vary slightly from theoretical probability because you can't predict probability with complete certainty, you can only say what is <em>most likely to happen</em>.
We want to find the probability of getting heads in our experiment so we can compare it to the theoretical outcome. To do this, we need to compare the number of heads to the total number of outcomes.
We have 63 heads, and a total of 150 coin flips.
That makes the probability of getting a heads 63/150.
The hard part is getting this ratio into a percent.
You can try simply dividing, but you should be able to notice something here.
SInce the top and the bottom of our fraction are both divisible by 3, we can <em>simiplify</em>.
63 ÷ 3 = 21
150 ÷ 3 = 50
So we could say that 63/150 = 21/50.
A percent is basically a fraction out of 100.
Just like you can divide the parts of a ratio by the same number and it will stay the same, you can also multiply. To get the fraction out of 100, let's multiply by 2.
(since 50 × 2 = 100)
21 × 2 = 42
50 × 2 = 100
21/50 = 42/100 = 42%
Comparing our experimental probability to the theoretical one...it is 8% lower.
<span>Let's say in general you want "n" adjacent squares. Each one needs a top, so that's n toothpicks. Each one needs a bottom, so that's another n toothpicks, and we're up to 2n total. You need one on the far left, and one on the far right, which brings us up to 2n + 2 toothpicks. Now we need to worry about the middle ones. But notice that you don't need n toothpicks for the interior because adjacent squares share. It turns out that you only need n-1. That brings us up to a grand total of 3n + 1 toothpicks, which would be 301 for n = 100.
I hope my answer has come to your help. Thank you for posting your question here in Brainly. We hope to answer more of your questions and inquiries soon. Have a nice day ahead!
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Answer:
I think it would be 0.038
with a line over the 38
Step-by-step explanation:
