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melamori03 [73]
3 years ago
9

About 16 % of the population of a large country is allergic to pollen. If two people are randomly selected, what is the probabil

ity both are allergic to pollen ? What is the probability at least one is allergic to pollen ?
(a) The probability that both will be allergic to pollen is . 0256. (Round to four decimal places as needed.)
(b) The probability that at least one person is allergic to pollen is nothing. (Round to four decimal places as needed.)
Mathematics
1 answer:
Vinvika [58]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

(a) 0.0256

(b) 0.2944

Step-by-step explanation:

For solving this exercise we can apply the binomial distribution. The equation that give as the probability is:

P(x,n,p)=(nCx)*p^{x} *(1-p)^{n-x}

Where n is the number of identical events, p is the probability that the event has a success and x is the number of success in the n identical events.

Additionally, nCx is calculated as:

nCx=\frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

So, in this case we have 2 identical events because we are going to select two people randomly and the probability p of success is the probability that the person is allergic to pollen and this probability is 16%.

Then, for the first case, x is 2 because their are asking for the probability that both are allergic to pollen. Replacing the values of x, n and p we get:

P(2,2,0.16)=(2C2)*0.16^{2} *(1-0.16)^{2-2}

P(2,2,0.16)=0.0256

For the second case, their are asking for the probability that at least one is allergic to pollen, that means that we need to sum the probability that both are allergic to pollen with the probability that just one is allergic to pollen.

Using the same equation to calculate P(1,2,0.16) we get:

P(1,2,0.16)=(2C1)*0.16^{1} *(1-0.16)^{2-1}

P(1,2,0.16)=0.2688

So, the probability that at least one person is allergic to pollen is 0.2944 and it is calculated as:

0.0256 + 0.2688 = 0.2944

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