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a_sh-v [17]
4 years ago
6

The reward-to-risk ratio for stock A is less than the reward-to-risk ratio of stock B. Stock A has a beta of 0.82 and stock B ha

s a beta of 1.29. This information implies that:
Business
1 answer:
Katen [24]3 years ago
4 0

Explanation:

According to the question , the reward - to - risk ratio for the stock A is lesser than that of the Stock B .

The beta values for both the stock is given as -

Stock A = 0.82

and ,

Stock B = 1.29 ,

From the above information , it can be implied that either stock B is under price or the stock A is overpriced, or both  .

Since ,  in the above case the absolute sense can not be determined and only the judgement can be made .

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White Company has two departments, Cutting and Finishing. The company uses a job-order costing system and computes a predetermin
const2013 [10]

Question not complete

Direct Labour Cost is missing

Direct Labor Cost ----- $50,000.00 $270,000.00

Answer:

a.

Overhead Rate (Cutting Department) = $5.5 per machine hour = $5.5 per machine hour

Overhead Rate (Finishing Department) = $12.2 per labour hour

b. Total Manufacturing Cost = $644

c. Yes

Explanation:

a. Compute the predetermined overhead rate to be used in each department.

Given

Cutting Department

The Cutting Department bases its rate on machine-hours

Manufacturing Overhead Costs = $264,000

Machine Hours = 48,000

Finishing Department

The Finishing Department bases its rate on direct labor-hours.

Manufacturing Overhead Costs = $366,000

Direct Labour Cost = $270,000

Overhead Rate (Cutting Department) = Manufacturing Overhead Cost/Machine Hours

Overhead Rate (Cutting Department) = $264,000/48,000

Overhead Rate (Cutting Department) = $5.5 per machine hour

Overhead Rate (Finishing Department) = Manufacturing Overhead Cost/Machine Hours

Overhead Rate (Finishing Department) = $366,000/$270,000

Overhead Rate (Finishing Department) = 1.36

Overhead Rate (Finishing Department) = 136% direct labour cost

b.

The Cutting Department bases its rate on machine-hours

Given

Machine hours = 80 machine hours

Overhead Rate = $5.5 per machine hours ------ Calculated

The Finishing Department bases its rate on direct labor-hours.

Given

Direct Labour Cost = 150

Overhead Rate = 136% labour cost ------ Calculated

Overhead Applied (Cutting Department) = 80 * 5.5

Overhead Applied = 440

Overhead Applied (Finishing Department) = 136% * 150

Overhead Applied = $204

Total Overhead Applied = $440 + $204

Total = $644

c. Yes

If they use a plantwide rate based on direct labor cost and if the jobs has longer machine hours and small amount of labor cost they will be charged less overhead cost.

6 0
3 years ago
Oriole Company sells merchandise on account for $7800 to Sunland Company with credit terms of 2/13, n/30. Sunland Company return
Stella [2.4K]

Answer:

a. $6468

Explanation:

Calculation for the amount of the check

Based on the information given we were told that Oriole Company sells merchandise on account for the amount of $7800 to Sunland Company with credit terms of 2/13, n/30 in which Sunland Company returns the amount of $1200 of merchandise that was damaged which means that the amount of the check will be calculated as:

Amount of the check=[($7,800 - $1,200) *(100%-2%) ]

Amount of the check=$6,600*0.98

Amount of the check=$6,468

Therefore the Amount of the check will be $6,468

7 0
3 years ago
Which is the best measure of risk for a single asset held in isolation (Stand Alone Investment), and which is the best measure f
borishaifa [10]

Answer:

  • Single asset = Coefficient of Variation
  • Portfolio = Beta

Explanation:

When dealing with standalone risk, coefficient of variation is best because it shows the amount by which the asset's returns might deviate from the average returns of the market.

As for portfolio assets that are well diversified, the best measure would be beta because diversified portfolios deal with systematic risk and beta shows the movement of the portfolio in relation to the market and so will show that systematic risk.

4 0
3 years ago
Bad Brads BBQ purchased a piece of equipment by paying $5,000 cash. They also incurred a shipping cost of $400 to get the equipm
rodikova [14]

Answer:

The $5,400 is the amount should Bad Brads BBQ record the equipment.

Explanation:

According to the Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP), the amount of asset is recorded at cost or fair market value which ever is lower.

The motive behind this is to present the financial statement in true and fair value rather than mislead values.

Since in the given question, the equipment purchase cost is $5,000 and shipping charges is $400.

So,

The total cost is = Purchase cost + shipping charges

                          = $5,000 + $400

                          = $5,400

And, the fair market value is $7,000.

By using the above explanation, the $5400 is the lesser amount than the $7,000.

Hence, the $5,400 is the amount should Bad Brads BBQ record the equipment.

5 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is an common factor of failure for small businesses
Alex777 [14]

A few of the following can be considered major factors in failure of small businesses:

-Lack of financial planning: when a business is born it needs to critically plan out the first few years of running. Small business often fail to plan out for the future and have less working capital at hand.

-Lack of expertise: small business cannot afford specialist managers and this may be a reason for failure

-no investment in marketing and research can also be a reason.


6 0
3 years ago
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