Answer:
idk what you asking but if it solve for for x it going be no solution
While I'm unsure what the word choices were, his claim is likely to be true.
Since he claims the probability of heads is 40%, that should be what we see in an experiment. 0.38 is very close to 0.40, or 40%, so this is true. Therefore his claim is likely to be true, and the probability of tails should be about 60%.
<em><u>Answer</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>:</u></em><em><u>-</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>opti</u></em><em><u>on</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>3</u></em><em><u>r</u></em><em><u>d</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>!</u></em><em><u>!</u></em><em><u> </u></em>
Step-by-step explanation:
∆FGE ~ ∆ JKL
i.e, Angle FGE = angle JKL = 63°
and angle GEF = angle KLJ = 29°
also, angle GFE = angle KJL = 88°
so, the ∆FGE ~ ∆ JKL by AA property of similarity !!
• not other options because if we take corresponding angle they are not equal
For eg. for ∆ EFG ~ ∆ JKL
the angle EFG must be equal to angle JKL to be similar !!
but they are not equal !!
so, they are not similar !!
and such ,all other options except 3rd is wrong !!
In step two he flipped the fraction back to how it was originally but he was supposed to leave it improper in order to multiply
Answer:
44 in.
Step-by-step explanation:
pi = 3.14 (in our case)
circumference = diameter x pi
circ. = 14 x 3.14, which equals to 43.96
round that and you get 44 in.
