Answer:
1. LM < PN
2. AD < DC
3. m<CAB < m<CBA
4. m<1 = m<2
Step-by-step explanation:
Recall: an angle measure is relative to the length of the opposite side. That is, the longer the side opposite to an angle, the larger the measure of that angle and vice versa.
1. LM is opposite to <LNM,
PN is opposite to <NLP
m<LNM is less than m<NLP, therefore,
LM < PN
2. AD is opposite to <ABD
DC is opposite to <DBC
m<ABD is less than m<DBC, therefore,
AD < DC
3. m<CAB is opposite to CB
m<CBA is opposite to CA
CB is less than CA, therefore,
m<CAB < m<CBA
4. The side opposite to <1 is congruent to the side opposite to <2.
Therefore,
m<1 = m<2
Answer:
The asnwer is B
Step-by-step explanation:
HOPE YOU DO WELL
I might be wrong but don’t you need two equations to do the elimination process?
Answer:
The answer is -1.255 for residual value.
Step-by-step explanation:
We are tasked to solve for the residual value given that when x equals 29, y will be equals to 27.255. But, when it is tested, y actual value is 26. The formula in solving residual is shown below:
Residual value = Observed value - predicted value
Residual value = 26 - 27.255
Residual values = -1.255