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miss Akunina [59]
3 years ago
8

One half of a number represented by x is −1/4 . What is the value x? Drag and drop the appropriate answer into the box. x = ​​ ​

−4, ​​​ ​−1/2,​ −1/4, ​​ ​2​. Need help asap
Mathematics
1 answer:
bonufazy [111]3 years ago
3 0
If half is -1/4 than the value of x is 2*(-1/4)=-1/2
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Owen's bedroom. has a perimeter of 46 feet. If the lengh of the bedroom is 11 feet. What is the width of the bedroom?
lesantik [10]
It has a width of 35 feet.
*You just subtract the perimeter by the length/width and in this situation you subtract the length*
7 0
3 years ago
What is the probability of getting heads and a b, c, and d
sp2606 [1]
I mean probably of getting head is a half if that's what u mean but what is a,b,c,d
4 0
3 years ago
Pls solve if u can <3 much appreciated
Scorpion4ik [409]

Step-by-step explanation:

that is only possible, if we don't need to use a 2 and a 5 (but especially the 2) to create the 1 in the middle (log(10) = log(2×5) or log (5×2) = 1).

in other words, if the 1 in the middle is just a given, and does not use any of our digits for is creation, then a solution is possible.

first of all, the upper left corner has to be log(0⁰). we cannot use the digit 0 for anything else. and 0^n (except for n = 0) is not a valid argument for a logarithm.

log(0⁰) = 0 log(2×1) = 0.3... log(9/4) = 0.35...

log(1×2) = 0.3... 1 log(3×6) = 1.26...

log(7/3) = 0.37... log(4×5) = 1.3... log(6⁹) = 7.0...

but as soon as we need to build the center 1 by log(10), which takes then away one of the 2s (as the only way to build 10 by multiplication is 2×5 or 5×2), there is no possible solution.

7 0
2 years ago
A diamond can be classified as either gem-quality or industrial-grade. 80% of diamonds are classified as industrial-grade.
mote1985 [20]

Answer:

a) 0.64

b) 0.21

c) 0.79

Step-by-step explanation:

Percentage of industrial-grade diamonds = 80%

This means, if one diamond is chosen at random, there is 80% chance that it will be of industrial-grade. So,

P(Industrial grade) = 80% = 0.80

Part a)

Probability that 1st diamond is industrial-grade = 0.80

Since, selection of diamonds in independent, the probability that 2nd diamond is also industrial grade = 0.80

The overall probability of both diamonds being industrial-grade will be the product of their individual probabilities, according to the fundamental rule of counting.

So, if two diamonds are chosen at random, the probability that both are industrial grade = 0.80 x 0.80 = (0.80)² = 0.64

Part b)

Following the same logic as we followed in the previous part.

The probability of each of the 7 diamonds being industrial-grade is 0.80, so the probability that all 7 are industrial grade will be:

Probability = 0.80 x 0.80 x 0.80 x 0.80 x 0.80 x 0.80 x 0.80 = (0.80)^{7} = 0.21

So, if 7 diamonds are chosen at random, the probability that all 7 are industrial grade is 0.21.

Part c)

The event "at least one" is complement of event "none". So, the event "at least one of 7" will be complement of "none of the 7"

If none of the selected diamonds is gem quality, this means all 7 of the diamonds are industrial-grade. So,

The probability that none of the diamonds is gem-quality = The probability that all 7 are industrial-grade = 0.21

So,

The probability that at least one of the 7 selected diamonds is gem-quality = 1 - Probability that none is gem-quality

= 1 - 0.21

= 0.79

Since the probability that atleast one of the 7 randomly selected diamonds is gem-quality is greater than 0.05, it won't be unusual event.

3 0
3 years ago
A mother has 6 sons
Akimi4 [234]

A. 13

Explanation= 6 (sons) +6 (daughters) +1 (mother) = 13.

(notes: as a father is not within the problem, there is no reason to be in the answer)

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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