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Ostrovityanka [42]
3 years ago
11

Your firm needs a machine which costs $240,000, and requires $39,000 in maintenance for each year of its 7 year life. After 3 ye

ars, this machine will be replaced. The machine falls into the MACRS 7-year class life category. Assume a tax rate of 40% and a discount rate of 12%. If this machine can be sold for $24,000 at the end of year 7, what is the after tax salvage value
Business
1 answer:
irinina [24]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The after tax salvage value would be of $18,681.6

Explanation:

In order to calculate the after tax salvage value we would have use and calculate the following formula:

After tax salvage value = selling price*(1-tax rate)+book value*tax rate

Book value = 8 year depreciation amount of 7 year MACR*purchase price

After tax salvage value = $24,000*(1-0.4)+$240,000*4.46/100*0.4

After tax salvage value =  $18,681.6

The after tax salvage value would be of $18,681.6

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The fund has not borrowed any funds, but its accrued management fee with the portfolio manager currently totals $25,000. There a
kvv77 [185]

Answer:

$9.79

Explanation:

The computation of the  net asset value of the fund is shown below:

Net asset value of the fund = Equity ÷ Total outstanding shares

where,

Equity

= Total assets - total liabilities

where,

Total assets equal to

= 220,000 shares × $35 + 320,000 shares × $40 + 420,000 shares × $15 + 620,000 shares × $20

= $7,700,000 + $12,800,000 + $6,300,000 + $12,400,000

= $39,200,000

And, liabilities is $25,000

So, the net asset value of the fund equal to

= ($39,200,000 - $25,000) ÷ (4,000,000 shares)

= $9.79

7 0
2 years ago
Question 3
Anna007 [38]
The answer is false....
7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Suppose that the marginal propensity to consume in Frugalia is 0.60. The government of Frugalia enacts a stimulus program that i
fgiga [73]

Answer:

option (c) $25 million

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

The marginal propensity to consume in Frugalia, MPC = 0.60

Increase in spending = $10 million

Now,

The total increase in income

= \frac{\textup{1}}{\textup{1-MPC}}  × Increase in spending

on substituting the respective values, we get

= \frac{\textup{1}}{\textup{1-0.6}}  × $10 million

=  \frac{\textup{1}}{\textup{0.4}}  × $10 million

or

= 2.5 × $10 million

or

= $25 million

Hence,

The answer is option (c) $25 million

5 0
2 years ago
Use the following information to answer the next three questions.
nalin [4]

Answer:

The  alignment of numbers in the first part of the question is off. However, you solve this question as shown below. The correct answer is C. $1,124.

Explanation:

This is a one-time cashflow type of question where the principal amount is invested once and no other addition is made to the account. You use the future value formula to solve the result of the compounding effect at year 3.

FV formula;

FV = PV(1+r)^n

PV = 800

discount rate; r = 12% or 0.12

total duration of investment; n = 3

therefore; FV = 800(1+0.12)^3

FV = 800 * 1.404928

FV = 1123.94

To the nearest whole dollar, the amount will grow to $1,124

6 0
2 years ago
Jaguar has full manufacturing costs of their Sminustype sedan of pound​22,803. They sell the Sminustype in the UK with a​ 20% ma
Anika [276]

Answer:

Explanation:

Old Price         27363

Exchange Rate 2.01

USD Value         55000

the company has committed to sale at $55000 existing price for next six months.

No currency hedge contract has been made by jaguar, in such case due to appreciation of pound the value of dollar will decrease but due to commitment by jaguar not to fluctuate the cost the total amount receivable in pounds will decrease as compared to 6 months before

USD Value         55000

Exchange Rate  2.15

Price in Pounds      25581

Decrease in pounds = 27363-25581 = 1782 loss

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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