Answer:
a
Step-by-step explanation:
i did this in middle shoool
hehe
To solve this problem, we make use of the Binomial
Probability equation which is mathematically expressed as:
P = [n! / r! (n – r)!] p^r * q^(n – r)
where,
n = the total number of gadgets = 4
r = number of samples = 1 and 2 (since not more than 2)
p = probability of success of getting a defective gadget
q = probability of failure = 1 – p
Calculating for p:
p = 5 / 15 = 0.33
So,
q = 1 – 0.33 = 0.67
Calculating for P when r = 1:
P (r = 1) = [4! / 1! 3!] 0.33^1 * 0.67^3
P (r = 1) = 0.3970
Calculating for P when r = 2:
P (r = 2) = [4! / 2! 2!] 0.33^2 * 0.67^2
P (r = 2) = 0.2933
Therefore the total probability of not getting more than
2 defective gadgets is:
P = 0.3970 + 0.2933
P = 0.6903
Hence there is a 0.6903 chance or 69.03% probability of
not getting more than 2 defective gadgets.
A= π r2 and v=3.14d
---Volume(v=3.14d):
3.14(15) equals 47.1
47.1 rounds to 47
nearest hundreth would be 0 that rounds to .1 or .10,which rounds to 47
v=47
---Area(π r2)
3.14(7.5)^2 is 3.14(56.25)
176.625
176.625 rounded to the nearest hundreth is 176.630.
Answer:
The area of a circle with the diameter of 15 is 176.630.
The formula for an area of a regular parallelogram is:
A = l * w
Where,
l = length
w = width
We are given that the total measurement of fence is only
60 feet and one side of the house is used as one side of the pen. Therefore,
l + 2 w = 60
<span>or simplifying to make an explicit expression for
one variable, say l:</span>
l = 60 – 2 w
<span>Substituting to the 1st equation:</span>
A = (60 – 2 w) * w
A = 60 w – 2 w^2
<span>The maxima are obtained by getting the 1st
derivative then equating dA/dw = 0:</span>
dA/dw
= 60 – 4 w
60 –
4 w = 0
4 w
= 60
w =
15
Since
l = 60 - 2w
l =
60 – 30
l =
30
<span>Therefore
the dimension that will make the largest pen is 15 ft by 30 ft.</span>
<span>ANSWER: C</span>
