Answer:
Explanation:
Using the dividend growth model = Do(1+g)/Ke-g
Do=1.62$
G=4%
Ke=12%
Do(1+g)/Ke-g = 2.0736(1+4%)/12%-4%
= 1.6848
/8%
= 53.916
Year Year Year Year Year
0 1 2 3 4
20% 20% 20% 20%
Dividend 1 1.2 1.44 1.728 2.0736
Ifninty dividend 55.91*
Total Cashflows 1 1.2 1.44 1.728 55.98
Pres.Val @12% 1 1.07142 1.14795 1.22995 35.583
Value of stock 40.030
Answer:
c) $5.68
Explanation:
The worth of this stock today is the present value of the future dividends which is computed by discounting future dividends as well as the terminal value using the required rate of return of 14.5% as the appropriate discount rate as shown thus:
Year 1 dividend=$.65
Year 2 dividend=$0.70
Year 3 dividend=$0.75
terminal value of dividends=Year 3 dividend*(1+g)/Ke-g
g=dividend terminal growth rate=2%
Ke=required rate of return=14.5%
terminal value of dividends=$0.75*(1+2%)/(14.5%-2%)=$ 6.12
Share price=$.65/(1+14.5%)^1+$.70/(1+14.5%)^2+$.75/(1+14.5%)^3+$6.12/(1+14.5%)^3
share price=$5.68
I believe the answer is Time management
Hop it helped you and you get a good grade on that assignment
Foreign saving is used for domestic investment when
foreigners engage in either foreign direct investment or foreign portfolio
investment.
<span>To add, ‘Foreign savings’ and the ‘net external
resources inflows’ are the two popular acronyms used for the current account
deficit in the balance of payments.</span>
