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Mrac [35]
2 years ago
11

Which graph corresponds to the function f(x) = x2 + 4x – 1?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Leona [35]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

See below

Step-by-step explanation:

I don't know if this helps you, but I wanted to get you an answer as quickly as I could in case you needed it really soon.  This is what a graph of this function would look like.  Choose the answer that looks like this one.

I really hope this helps!

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Terry Wade's variable costs for his car
Pie

Answer:

id guess if i were u but thats just me

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
1 +<br> + '2+3+ - + = no +1<br> 그
dalvyx [7]

Answer:

t = 1/2n-6, nER

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
2 years ago
A) Use the definition of Laplace transform to find L{f }. (Do the integrals.) For what values of s is L{f } defined?f(t) = (2t+1
kiruha [24]

For the given function f(t) = (2t + 1) using definition of Laplace transform the required solution is L(f(t))s = [ ( 2/s²) + ( 1/s) ].

As given in the question,

Given function is equal to :

f(t) = 2t + 1

Simplify the given function using definition of Laplace transform we have,

L(f(t))s = \int\limits^\infty_0 {f(t)e^{-st} } \, dt

          =  \int\limits^\infty_0[2t +1] e^{-st} dt

          = 2\int\limits^\infty_0 te^{-st} + \int\limits^\infty_0e^{-st} dt

         = 2 L(t) + L(1)

L(1) = \int\limits^\infty_0e^{-st} dt

     = (-1/s) ( 0 -1 )

     = 1/s , ( s >  0)

2L ( t ) = 2\int\limits^\infty_0 te^{-st}

        =  2[t\int\limits^\infty_0 e^{-st} - \int\limits^\infty_0 ({(d/dt)(t) \int\limits^\infty_0e^{-st} \, dt )dt]

        =  2/ s²

Now ,

L(f(t))s = 2 L(t) + L(1)

          = 2/ s² + 1/s

Therefore, the solution of the given function using Laplace transform the required solution is L(f(t))s = [ ( 2/s²) + ( 1/s) ].

Learn more about Laplace transform here

brainly.com/question/14487937

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8 0
10 months ago
Merry Soy, married, earns a weekly salary of $830 and claims one withholding allowance. By the percentage method, how much incom
xxMikexx [17]
You need to find the amount subject to withholding, subtracting from the weekly salary the amount for one withholding allowance for weekly salaries, which is 77.90$:

830 - 77.90 = 752.1 $.

Then, look in the Fed Tax tables (
http://www.opers.ok.gov/Websites/opers/images/pdfs/2016-Fed-Tax-Tables.pdf ) for a married person with a weekly payroll.

You previously found an amount of  752.1 which is greater than 521 but less than 1613$: therefore the income tax to withhold is 35.70$ + 15% of excess over $521.

Therefore, calculate the income tax due: 35.70 + (752.1 - 521) × 15 ÷ 100 = 70.37$

The total amount of income tax that will be withheld is 70.37$
4 0
2 years ago
Diego is solving this system of equations:
USPshnik [31]

The solutions of the equations are x = 1 and y = 2

The system of equations are

4x + 3y = 10

-4x + 5y = 6

Here we have to use the elimination method. Eliminate the x term and find the value of y term

Add both equation

3y + 5y = 10 +6

Add the like terms

8y = 16

y = 16 / 8

Divide  the terms

y = 2

Substitute the value of x in the first equation

4x + 3y = 10

4x + 3×2 =  10

Multiply the terms

4x + 6  = 10

4x = 10 - 6

4x = 4

x = 4 / 4

Divide the terms

x = 1

Hence, the solutions of the equations are x = 1 and y = 2

Learn more about elimination method here

brainly.com/question/14619835

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7 0
1 year ago
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