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3 years ago

15

What fraction of 1 pint is 1 cup

1 answer:

Aleonysh [2.5K]3 years ago

8 0

<span>The answer is that the fraction of 1/2 pint is 1 cup. To solve this you must know the equivalence between pints and cups, and use the notion of proportions. Two cups equal one pint. Then you can state this proportion: 1 pint / 2 cups = x pint / 1 cup. When you solve for x you get: x = 1/2. Which means that 1 cup is 1/2 of 1 pint. </span>

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vichka [17]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

we know that

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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7 0

3 years ago

NEED HELP ASAP! GIVING BRAINLEST!

Andreas93 [3]

Answer:

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3 years ago

Suppose y varies directly with x, and y = 15 when x = 3. What is y when x = 12?

sveticcg [70]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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we know that

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$x+y$

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$(y+4)+y=2y+4$

simplify

$2(y+2)$

8 0

4 years ago