Ask question

Ask question

All categories

3 years ago

15

What fraction of 1 pint is 1 cup

1 answer:

Aleonysh [2.5K]3 years ago

8 0

<span>The answer is that the fraction of 1/2 pint is 1 cup. To solve this you must know the equivalence between pints and cups, and use the notion of proportions. Two cups equal one pint. Then you can state this proportion: 1 pint / 2 cups = x pint / 1 cup. When you solve for x you get: x = 1/2. Which means that 1 cup is 1/2 of 1 pint. </span>

You might be interested in

Which of the following functions is graphed below?

pishuonlain [190]

Answer: B

The piece wise functions first part says: x is less than it equal to one and has a vertical shift down 4. which would mean the circle is closed and shaded down.

The second part of the function says x is greater than one and has a vertical shift up 3. This would mean it is an open circle and is shaded up.

7 0

2 years ago

Solve for f (-3) for f (x) = 1 -x<br> f (-3) = [ ? ]

Lostsunrise [7]

F(x) = 1 - x
f(-3) = 1 - (-3)
f(-3) = 4

3 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

What’s the least common multiple of 12 and 2

NNADVOKAT [17]

For example, for LCM (12,30) we find:

Using the set of prime numbers from each set with the highest exponent value we take 22 * 31 * 51 = 60. Therefore LCM (12,30) = 60.

7 0

2 years ago

WILL MARK YOU BRAINLIEST HURRY

Softa [21]

Answer:

34;34;112

Step-by-step explanation:

It's a Isosceles triangle so the equation is

x+17=4x-34

x-4x=-35-17

-3x=-51

x=-51/-3

x=17

17+17=34

4.17-34=34

6.17+10=112

3 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The diameter of a particle of contamination (in micrometers) is modeled with the probability density function f(x)= 2/x^3 for x

RoseWind [281]

Answer:

a) 0.96

b) 0.016

c) 0.018

d) 0.982

e) x = 2

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given with the Probability density function f(x)= 2/x^3 where x > 1.

<em>Firstly we will calculate the general probability that of P(a < X < b) </em>

P(a < X < b) = $\int_{a}^{b} \frac{2}{x^{3}} dx$ = $2\int_{a}^{b} x^{-3} dx$

= $2[ \frac{x^{-3+1} }{-3+1}]^{b}_a dx$ { Because $\int_{a}^{b} x^{n} dx = [ \frac{x^{n+1} }{n+1}]^{b}_a$ }

= $2[ \frac{x^{-2} }{-2}]^{b}_a$ = $\frac{2}{-2} [ x^{-2} ]^{b}_a$

= $-1 [ b^{-2} - a^{-2} ]$ = $\frac{1}{a^{2} } - \frac{1}{b^{2} }$

a) Now P(X < 5) = P(1 < X < 5) {because x > 1 }

Comparing with general probability we get,

P(1 < X < 5) = $\frac{1}{1^{2} } - \frac{1}{5^{2} }$ = $1 - \frac{1}{25}$ = 0.96 .

b) P(X > 8) = P(8 < X < ∞) = 1/ $8^{2}$ - 1/∞ = 1/64 - 0 = 0.016

c) P(6 < X < 10) = $\frac{1}{6^{2} } - \frac{1}{10^{2} }$ = $\frac{1}{36} - \frac{1}{100 }$ = 0.018 .

d) P(x < 6 or X > 10) = P(1 < X < 6) + P(10 < X < ∞)

= $(\frac{1}{1^{2} } - \frac{1}{6^{2} })$ + (1/ $10^{2}$ - 1/∞) = 1 - 1/36 + 1/100 + 0 = 0.982

e) We have to find x such that P(X < x) = 0.75 ;

⇒ P(1 < X < x) = 0.75

⇒ $\frac{1}{1^{2} } - \frac{1}{x^{2} }$ = 0.75

⇒ $\frac{1} {x^{2} }$ = 1 - 0.75 = 0.25

⇒ $x^{2}$ = $\frac{1}{0.25}$ ⇒ $x^{2}$ = 4 ⇒ x = $2$

Therefore, value of x such that P(X < x) = 0.75 is 2.

8 0

2 years ago