Answer:
Secular bear market
Explanation:
A secular bear market is a long term trend that lasts between 5 to 25 years which consists of a smaller bull market and a larger bear market. It means that a small period of increase in prices is followed by a prolonged period of a decrease in price.
A secular bear occurred between January 1980 to June 1999 in the gold market. During this time, the price of gold fell $850/oz to $253/oz
A secular bull market is a long term trend that lasts between 5 to 25 years which consists of a small period of decline in prices is followed by a prolonged period of a rise in price.
The term used from the income statement to calculate turnover is (b) Sales
<h3>How to determine the term?</h3>
The turnover of property plant & equipment and receivables is calculated using
Turnover = Sales ÷ Average Inventory
The dividend in the above equation is Sales
Hence, the term used from the income statement is (b) Sales
Read more about turnover at:
brainly.com/question/25623677
#SPJ1
Answer:
D) South American cocoa bean producers refuse to ship to chocolate producers in the US.
Explanation:
A nonbinding rice ceiling means that the equilibrium price is below the price ceiling, so it will have no effect in real life. In order for the price ceiling to become binding and start to negatively affect the market, the equilibrium price must increase.
The only option that would increase the equilibrium price is option D, since the shortage of a key input will probably result in an increase in the price of the key input. If the price of a key input increases, the cost of producing chocolate will increase, resulting in a leftward shift of the supply curve.
A leftward shift of the supply curve will decrease the total quantity supplied and it will increase the price of chocolate at every level of quantity demanded. This will result in an increase in the equilibrium price which might ultimately change the price ceiling from nonbinding to binding.
Hello. You did not present a diagram to which the question refers. However, I will try to help you in the best possible way.
The income effect is the term related to the increase or decrease in the consumer's purchasing power in relation to the fluctuation in the price of consumer products and the value of the national currency. On the other hand, the substitution effect refers to the impact between the variation of the consumers' income value and the product's prices.
The answer is <span>preserves and parks. </span>