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olya-2409 [2.1K]
2 years ago
13

Over the last six years, prices and investing activity in the bond market rose for two years and then fell consistently for the

next four years. How is this market classified? Primary bull market Secular bull market Secular bear market Primary bear market
Business
1 answer:
bezimeni [28]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Secular bear market

Explanation:

A secular bear market is a long term trend that lasts between 5 to 25 years which consists of a smaller bull market and a larger bear market. It means that a small period of increase in prices is followed by a prolonged period of a decrease in price.

A secular bear occurred between January 1980 to June 1999 in the gold market.  During this time, the price of gold fell   $850/oz  to  $253/oz

A secular bull market is a long term trend that lasts between 5 to 25 years which consists of a small period of decline in prices is followed by a prolonged period of a rise in price.

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How do you know which unit of a conversion factor must be in the denominator?
Zinaida [17]
If it does help please Mark Brainliest...

The unit that is used in the denominator is the one to cancels the unit that appears in a numerator.


Thanks
5 0
3 years ago
An aging of Bicycle Company's accounts receivable indicates that $20,000 is estimated to be uncollectible. If Allowance for Doub
V125BC [204]

Answer:

The adjustment to record bad debts for the period will be:

Debit Bad debt expense ($20,000 - $3,000)                    $17,000

Credit Allowance for doubtful accounts                            $17,000

<em>(Bad debt expense required)</em>

Explanation:

Bicylce Company adopts the aging of accounts receivable method. The aging of accounts receivable is a criterion for apportioning the balance in the accounts receivable into different buckets (aging), for example: Not due, 1 - 30 days, 30 - 60 days, over 60 days, based on historical information and assigning a credit loss percentage to each bucket.

Since the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has a $3,000 credit, to calculate the required bad debt expense, we need to back out this amount from the amount that is deemed uncollectible, that is $20,000 - $3,000 = $17,000.

4 0
3 years ago
Daniel Co. has 500 employees who work 8-hour days and are paid hourly. On January 1, 2020, Daniel started granting its employees
Jobisdone [24]

Answer:

The amount of expense for compensated absence to report in income statement for 2020 is $2,000,000.

Explanation:

This can be calculated using the following formula:

Amount to report in income statement for 2020 = Number of employees * Hourly wages in 2020 * Number of hours worked daily * Vacation Days Earned by Each Employee .......................... (1)

Where;

Number of employees = 500

Hourly wages in 2020 = $25

Number of hours worked daily = 8

Vacation Days Earned by Each Employee = 20

Substituting the values into equation (1) we have:

Amount to report in income statement for 2020 = 500 * $25 * 8 * 20

Amount to report in income statement for 2020 = $2,000,000

Therefore, the amount of expense for compensated absence to report in income statement for 2020 is $2,000,000.

4 0
2 years ago
When people refer to jobs in the public sector they are referring to jobs with:
valina [46]
A. Is the answer since if you look up what a public sector is it mentions the government
5 0
3 years ago
Before using them on the grill wooden skewers be
dolphi86 [110]

Answer:

soak them in warm water

Explanation:

answer soak them in water D

3 0
3 years ago
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