Answer:
The company's price–earnings ratio is 36.
Explanation:
Price earning ratio is the ratio of market value of share to earning per share. It shows that how much investors are willing to pay for each dollar of earning of the company.
Profit margin = Net income / sales
0.04 = Net Income / $7800
Net Income = $7800 x 0.04 = $312
Earning Per share = Net Income / number of outstanding shares
Earning Per share = $312 / 6,100 = $0.05
Price earning ratio = Market price of share / Earning per share
Price earning ratio = $1.8 / $0.05 = 36
Answer:
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Logan Corporation has 30 employees, 10 in "A-line," and 20 in "B-line." Logan incurred $180,000 in fringe benefits costs last year.
First, we need to calculate the allocation rate based on number of employees:
Estimated allocation rate= total estimated fringe costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base
Estimated allocation rate= 180,000/30= $6,000 per employee.
Now, we can allocate fringe costs to the A-line:
Allocated fringe costs= Estimated Estimated allocation rate* Actual amount of allocation base
Allocated fringe costs= 6,000*10= $60,000
The assumption in perfect competition that there is an easy entry and exit from the market implies that firms will make a zero economic profit in the long run.
<h3>Why do firms make a zero economic profit?</h3>
In a pure competition, companies are allowed to freely enter and leave.
They take advantage of this to enter a market when prices are high and economic profit is being made.
As more firms enter, the economic profit keeps decreasing as prices decrease until this profit gets to zero and then turns to economic losses.
At this point, some firms will leave the market to stop making losses. When they do, the supply will decrease which leads to prices rising once more.
The cycle will then repeat itself and keep the companies at a zero economic profit in the long run.
Find out more on perfect competitions at brainly.com/question/1748396
#SPJ1
Answer:
Option A is the correct answer,no adjustment is needed.
Explanation:
When related companies sell to each other,the sales transaction is not sales in actual sense,as it is likened to the left hand of an individual exchanging cash with the right hand,in other words, the cash is still owned by the same person.
The same concept is applicable to subsidiaries and parent,the sales recorded from a group perspective is when they sold to external third parties.
When sales happen between related companies, a provision for unrealized profits has to be made to the tune of inventory purchased from related companies not yet sold externally,as the whole of the goods have been to third parties, no such provision or adjustment is required.
