Answer:
The journal entry is given as follows;
Explanation:
Accounts Receivable-Valley Spa Dr.$7,930
Interest Revenue (7,800*10%*2/12) Cr.$130
Notes Receivable Cr.$7,800
Answer:
Dr goodwill impairment $34200
Cr goodwill $34200
Explanation:
The fact that the fair value of Blossom’s net identifiable assets is less than the carrying value is a strong indication that the goodwill has been impaired and the impairment is computed thus:
Goodwill impairment=Fair value of net assets-carrying value
fair value of net assets=$820,800
Carrying value of net assets=$855,000
goodwill impairment=$855,000-$820,800=$34200
The double entries would be a debit to goodwill impairment loss account in the statement of profit or loss and a credit to goodwill.
Solution :
a). At the break even units, the total contribution margin = fixed expenses
We know that : (Selling price - variable cost) x units sold = fixed expenses
i.e. (20-14)x = 225,000
6x = 225,000
x = 37,500
Therefore, the number of units sold, x = 37,500
So, the break even analysis = 37,500 x 20
= 750,000
b). 

= 30%
The Breakeven sales = 

= 750,000
c). 

= 37.5%
d). Units needed :



units
Therefore, the sales required = 62,500 x 20
= 125,000
Answer:
Business Optimization
Explanation:
Business optimization refers to the procedure of evaluating an enterprise's effectiveness, competitiveness and success and seeking ways of improving that behavior. It is considered a natural methodology of administration which can be seen as a practice of calculation, change, and measurement.
In other words, Business process optimization refers to the method of enhancing procedures by growing the operational performance. This is a part of business systems integration (BPM) framework. Integrated processes contribute to business objectives which are optimized.
Answer:
Angela has not worked for her employer long enough to demand leave.
Explanation:
Since angela is approx nine month pregnant and she worked on a full time basis for the last eight month also she wants to take the off for the nine weeks so as per the family medical leave act, the problem that could be seen is that she is not worked for her also the employer is sufficient for demanding the leave
Therefore the above statement should be correct