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Gekata [30.6K]
3 years ago
14

Which statement could be used to explain why f(x) = 2x – 3 has an inverse relation that is a function?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Slav-nsk [51]3 years ago
8 0
Since f(x) has a domain and range of all real numbers, it's inverse also has a domain and range of all real numbers.  Furthermore since every value pair of (x,y) for f(x) is unique, its inverse will also have the inverse unique value pairs (y,x).
Vlada [557]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

f(x) is a one to one function

Step-by-step explanation:

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