Which statement could be used to explain why f(x) = 2x – 3 has an inverse relation that is a function?

2 answers:

8 0

Since f(x) has a domain and range of all real numbers, it's inverse also has a domain and range of all real numbers. Furthermore since every value pair of (x,y) for f(x) is unique, its inverse will also have the inverse unique value pairs (y,x).

Vlada [557]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

f(x) is a one to one function

Step-by-step explanation:

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