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MissTica
3 years ago
5

Consider a multifactor model with two factors. A well-diversified portfolio (Portfolio P) has a beta of 0.75 on factor 1 and a b

eta of 1.25 on factor 2. The risk premiums on the factor 1 and factor 2 are 1% and 7%, respectively. The risk-free rate of return is 7%. What is the expected return on portfolio P, according to a two-factor model
Business
2 answers:
PolarNik [594]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: 16.5%

Explanation:

Expected Return on portfolio P will be calculated as:

= Rf + (Beta1 × F1) + (Beta2 × F2)

where,

Rf = Risk Free rate

F1 = risk premium on Factor1

F2 = risk premium on Factor2

Expected Return will now be:

= 7% + (0.75 × 1%) + (1.25 × 7%)

= 7% + 0.75% + 8.75%

= 16.5%

The expected return on portfolio P, according to a two-factor model will be 16.5%.

Zarrin [17]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

16.5%

Explanation:

A multi-factor model can be used to explain either an individual security or a portfolio of securities. It does so by comparing two or more factors to analyze relationships between variables and the resulting performance.

DATA

Risk Free rate  = Rf = 7%

risk premium on Factor1  = F1 =  1%

Beta (Factor 1) = 1.25

risk premium on Factor2  = F2 = 7%

Beta (Factor 1) = 2

Expected Return = Rf + (Beta1 x F1) + (Beta2 * F2)

Expected Return = 7% + (0.75 x 1%) + (1.25 x 7%)

Expected Return = 0.07 + 0.0075 + 0.0875

Expected Return = 0.165 or  16.5%

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The December 31, Year 1, financial statements of Edwards Co. (a privately held company) were available to be issued on March 1,
Leno4ka [110]

Because of those issued transaction, Edwards Co. must provide the disclosure about the stock issuance in the footnotes included with the December 31, Year 1 financial statements

A Footnote is a section for financial disclosure that shows how the numbers in the statement of financial position and cash flow statements were determined.

  • Here, there are various stocks in Edward Company which were issued in the accounting year.

Hence, because of those issued transaction, Edwards Co. must provide the disclosure about the stock issuance in the footnotes included with the December 31, Year 1 financial statements

Read more about Footnote

<em>brainly.com/question/25306530</em>

3 0
2 years ago
Allegheny Company ended Year 1 with balances in Accounts Receivable and Allowance for Doubtful Accounts of $68,000 and $3450, re
prohojiy [21]

Answer:

  • What amount will Allegheny report as bad debts Expense on its Year 2 income statement?

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 8,250

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 8,250

Explanation:

  • Balances in Accounts Receivable and Allowance for Doubtful Accounts of:

Dr Accounts receivable $ 68,000

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 3,450

 

  • Allegheny write off $6300 of Uncollectible Accounts.  

Dr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 6,300

Cr Accounts receivable $ 6,300

 

  • Allegheny estimates that the ending Allowance for Doubtful Accounts balance should be $5,400  

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 8,250

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 8,250

Because the company already has a DEBIT balance ($2,850) in the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts  

it's necessary to register an entry that COMPENSATE ($8,250) the existing value and reflect the value estimated as bad debts ($5,400 = $8,250-$2,850).  

If the company applies the allowance method, it means that the account Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts must show as balance the % of estimated value.

Bad accounts are those credits granted by the company and there is no possibility of being charged.

"When customers buy products on credits but the company cannot collect the debt, then it's necessary to cancel the unpaid invoice as uncollectible."

One way is to directly cancel bad debts at the time it was decided that the credit is bad, the total amount reported as bad debt expenses negatively affect the income statement and the accounts receivable are reduced by the same amount, less assets .

The other way is to determine a percentage of the total amount of accounts receivable as bad debts, there are many ways to analyze accounts receivable and calculate the value of bad debts.

When the company has the percentage of uncollectible accounts, the required journal entry is Bad Expenses (debit) with Reserve for Bad Accounts (credit)

At the time of cancellation, since the expenses were recognized before, we only use the Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts (Debit)  with accounts receivable (credit), with this we are recognizing the bad credit of the company.

8 0
3 years ago
Susan bought a new sweater on sale for dollar 28.93.she was charged HST of 13%.find the total amount of her bill including taxes
Leya [2.2K]

Answer:

The answer is 32.69$.

Explanation:

The Sale price of sweater was $28.93, to add 13% HST we need to multiply 28.93 by 13 % & add 28.93 to it.

8 0
3 years ago
Malone Imports stock should return 12 percent in a boom, 10 percent in a normal economy, and 2 percent in a recession. The proba
Rufina [12.5K]

Answer:

6.11%

Explanation:

For computing the variance, first we have to determine the expected return which is shown below:

= (Expected return of the boom × weightage of boom) + (expected return of the normal economy × weightage of normal economy)  + (expected return of the recession × weightage of recession)

= (12% × 5%) + (10% × 85%)  + (2% × 10%)  

= 0.6% + 8.5% + 0.2%

= 9.30%

Now the variance would equal to the

= Weightage × (Return - Expected Return) ^2

For boom:

= 5% × (12% - 9.3%) ^2

= 0.3645

For normal economy:

= 85% × (10% - 9.3%) ^2

= 0.4165

For recession:

= 10% × (2% - 9.3%) ^2

= 5.329

So, the total variance would be

= 0.3645 + 0.4165 + 5.329

= 6.11%

4 0
2 years ago
To manufacture 3,000 pairs of sandals in a week, a firm can use 3,600 workers and 135 machines or 270 machines and 3,300 workers
Nutka1998 [239]

Answer:

3,600 workers and 135 machines is more technically efficient.

Explanation:

a. For 3,600 workers and 135 machines

Worker technical efficiency = 3,600/3,000 = $120%

Machine technical efficiency = 135 / 3,000 = 4.50%

Average technical efficiency = (120% + 4.5%) / 2 = 62.25%

b. For 270 machines and 3,300 workers.

Worker technical efficiency = 270/3,000 = $9%

Machine technical efficiency = 3,300 / 3,000 = 110%

Average technical efficiency = (9% + 110%) / 2 = 59.50%

Conclusion

Since the average technical efficiency of 62.25% is higher than 59.50%, 3,600 workers and 135 machines is more technically efficient.

8 0
3 years ago
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