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noname [10]
3 years ago
9

Do any of y’all know please ? which ever answer shows their work are getting brainly

Mathematics
1 answer:
ahrayia [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Last one: ⅗

Step-by-step explanation:

cosF = adjacent/hypotenuse

cosF = FD/FE

= 6/10

= 3/5

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3 years ago
In one jar, I have two balls labelled 1 and 2 respectively. In a second jar, I have three balls labelled 0, 1 and 2 respectively
PolarNik [594]

Step-by-step explanation:

this is a kind of trick question, actually.

with whatever we draw, we produce X values as power of 3.

to be precise, we can have only

3⁰ = 1

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3⁴ = 81

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so, mostly, these results cannot be exact factors of 1024.

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but 1024 is a multiple of 1 (as is every number).

so, we are looking at the probability to get 0 as multiplication result of the numbers on the 2 drawn balls.

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1 and 0

1 and 1

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the probability of this "0" event is again

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6 0
3 years ago
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