I think the answer is c because it is a even number and the answer can also be a but i think it is c
1. 8/9 ÷ 4/9 is done by inverting the divisor (4/9) and then multiplying:
(8/9)(9/4) = 8/4 = 2 (answer)
2. 1/3 ÷ 6 is done similarly: (1/3)(1/6) = 1/18 (answer)
3. 4 ÷ 1/5 = 4 * 5 = 20 (answer)
4. 7 1/2 ÷ 1/4 = (15/2)(4/1) = 30 (answer)
Step-by-step explanation:
<h2>
<em><u>You can solve this using the binomial probability formula.</u></em></h2><h2>
<em><u>You can solve this using the binomial probability formula.The fact that "obtaining at least two 6s" requires you to include cases where you would get three and four 6s as well.</u></em></h2><h2>
<em><u>You can solve this using the binomial probability formula.The fact that "obtaining at least two 6s" requires you to include cases where you would get three and four 6s as well.Then, we can set the equation as follows:</u></em></h2><h2>
<em><u>You can solve this using the binomial probability formula.The fact that "obtaining at least two 6s" requires you to include cases where you would get three and four 6s as well.Then, we can set the equation as follows: </u></em></h2><h2>
<em><u>You can solve this using the binomial probability formula.The fact that "obtaining at least two 6s" requires you to include cases where you would get three and four 6s as well.Then, we can set the equation as follows: P(X≥x) = ∑(k=x to n) C(n k) p^k q^(n-k) </u></em></h2><h2>
<em><u>You can solve this using the binomial probability formula.The fact that "obtaining at least two 6s" requires you to include cases where you would get three and four 6s as well.Then, we can set the equation as follows: P(X≥x) = ∑(k=x to n) C(n k) p^k q^(n-k) n=4, x=2, k=2</u></em></h2><h2>
<em><u>You can solve this using the binomial probability formula.The fact that "obtaining at least two 6s" requires you to include cases where you would get three and four 6s as well.Then, we can set the equation as follows: P(X≥x) = ∑(k=x to n) C(n k) p^k q^(n-k) n=4, x=2, k=2when x=2 (4 2)(1/6)^2(5/6)^4-2 = 0.1157</u></em></h2><h2>
<em><u>You can solve this using the binomial probability formula.The fact that "obtaining at least two 6s" requires you to include cases where you would get three and four 6s as well.Then, we can set the equation as follows: P(X≥x) = ∑(k=x to n) C(n k) p^k q^(n-k) n=4, x=2, k=2when x=2 (4 2)(1/6)^2(5/6)^4-2 = 0.1157when x=3 (4 3)(1/6)^3(5/6)^4-3 = 0.0154</u></em></h2><h2>
<em><u>You can solve this using the binomial probability formula.The fact that "obtaining at least two 6s" requires you to include cases where you would get three and four 6s as well.Then, we can set the equation as follows: P(X≥x) = ∑(k=x to n) C(n k) p^k q^(n-k) n=4, x=2, k=2when x=2 (4 2)(1/6)^2(5/6)^4-2 = 0.1157when x=3 (4 3)(1/6)^3(5/6)^4-3 = 0.0154when x=4 (4 4)(1/6)^4(5/6)^4-4 = 0.0008</u></em></h2><h2>
<em><u>You can solve this using the binomial probability formula.The fact that "obtaining at least two 6s" requires you to include cases where you would get three and four 6s as well.Then, we can set the equation as follows: P(X≥x) = ∑(k=x to n) C(n k) p^k q^(n-k) n=4, x=2, k=2when x=2 (4 2)(1/6)^2(5/6)^4-2 = 0.1157when x=3 (4 3)(1/6)^3(5/6)^4-3 = 0.0154when x=4 (4 4)(1/6)^4(5/6)^4-4 = 0.0008Add them up, and you should get 0.1319 or 13.2% (rounded to the nearest tenth)</u></em></h2>
I can't understand this after "happening is" but let's do it unaided.
The number of ways to draw a boy first is 6.
Given that, the number of ways to draw a girl next is 10.
That's out of a total of 16 x 15 length two permutations of 16 things

Answer: 1/4
Answer:
2/5
Step-by-step explanation:
5+4+1 = 10. If you have 4 nickels out of 10 coins, it means there is a 4/10 chance of selecting one, but to simplify, 2 is the greatest common factor, so you would divide each number.
4/2 = 2.
10/2 = 5.
The answer is 2/5.