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Ber [7]
3 years ago
6

5 causes of lack of clean water due to human factor

Business
2 answers:
TiliK225 [7]3 years ago
8 0
-Oil spills
-Acid rain
-Factories
-Toxic Waste
-Sewage and waste runoff
BlackZzzverrR [31]3 years ago
8 0
1. Pollution
2. dumping waste and sewage into water supply (like rotting food)
3. toxic chemicals
4. improper sanitation
5. littering or dirtying the planet in any way whatsoever


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Lancaster Corp. is considering two equally risky, mutually exclusive projects, both of which have normal cash flows. Project A h
levacccp [35]

Answer:

Explanation:

IRR is the discount rate point where NPV equal to 0. Given, both projects have same NPV at 8%, when discount rate is higher than 8%, NPV of project A will decrease faster than that of project B because project A's IRR is lower than project B's IRR. When discount rate is lower than 8%, NPV of project A will increase faster than project B's.

We will go through each of the answer options:

A. If the cost of capital is 9%, Project A's NPV will be higher than Project B's. False

<em>Explaination: Cost of capital here is higher than 8%, NPV of project A will be lower than that of project B.</em>

B. If the cost of capital is 6%, Project B's NPV will be higher than Project A's. False

<em>Explaination: </em>

C. If the cost of capital is greater than 14%, Project A's IRR will exceed Project B's. False

<em>Explaination: IRR is dependent on pattern of cashflows rather than cost of capital.</em><em> </em>

D. If the cost of capital is 9%, Project B's NPV will be higher than Project A's. True

<em>Explaination: This is an opposite answer to option A.</em>

E. If the cost of capital is 13%, Project A's NPV will be higher than Project B's. False

<em>Explaination: When the cost of capital is 13%, NPV of project A is negative and NPV of project B is positive.</em>

5 0
3 years ago
During the current year, Harold Company sold inventory costing $350,000 for a selling price of $675,000. Beginning balances of i
Len [333]

Answer: $351,000

Explanation:

Given that,

Cost of inventory = $350,000

Selling price = $675,000

Beginning balance of inventory = $86,000

Beginning balance of accounts payable = $116,000

ending balance of inventory = $94,000

ending balance of accounts payable = $123,000

Cash paid to suppliers:

= Cost of Goods Sold + Change in inventory - Change in accounts payable

= 350,000 + (94,000-86,000) - (123,000-116,000)

= 350,000 + 8,000 - 7,000

= $351,000

6 0
3 years ago
A wood products company has decided to purchase new logging equipment for ​$ with a​ trade-in of its old equipment. The old equi
LuckyWell [14K]

Answer:

The question is incomplete, so I looked for a similar one:

A wood products company has decided to purchase new logging equipment for $100,000 with a trade-in of its old equipment. The old equipment has a BV of $10,000 at the time of the trade-in. The new equipment will be kept for 10 years before being sold. Using the MACRS​ (GDS recovery​ period), what is the depreciation charge permissible at year 1?

Depreciable value using MACRS is $100,000 and logging equipment is classified as 7 year class, and I will use the half-year convention:

depreciation year 1 = $100,000 x 14.29% = $14,290

6 0
3 years ago
ervis sells $75,000 of its accounts receivable to Northern Bank in order to obtain necessary cash. Northern Bank charges a 5% fa
Nadusha1986 [10]

Answer:

Debit Cash account      $71,250

Debit Factoring charge   $3,750

Credit Accounts receivable  $75,000

Explanation:

Factoring accounts receivable involves the sale of the account receivable to another party such that the debt is now payable to that party. This is usually done to ease liquidity and at a charge.

When receivables are factored,

Debit Cash account

Debit Factoring charge

Credit Accounts receivable

Charge on factoring =  5/100 × $75,000

= $3,750

Amount to be received = $75,000 - $3,750

= $71,250

3 0
3 years ago
If your 60-year-old customer purchases a nonqualified variable annuity and withdraws some of her funds before the contract is an
Svetlanka [38]

Answer: Ordinary income tax on earnings exceeding basis.

Explanation:

From the question, we are informed that a 60-year-old customer purchases a nonqualified variable annuity and withdraws some of her funds before the contract is annuitized.

The consequences of this action is that Ordinary income tax on earnings exceeding basis. It should be note that the distributions from a nonqualified plan had to do with return on original investment and income from the investment. Since there's defer of the income, it'll be taxable as an ordinary income.

5 0
3 years ago
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