We can use the binomial theorem to find the probability that 0 out of the 15 samples will be defective, given that 20% are defective.
P(0/15) = (15C0) (0.2)^0 (1 - 0.2)^15 = (1)(1)(0.8)^15 = 0.0352
Then the probability that at least 1 is defective is equal to 1 - 0.0352 = 0.9648. This means there is a 96.48% chance that at least 1 of the 15 samples will be found defective. This is probably sufficient, though it depends on her significance level. If the usual 95% is used, then this is enough.
Answer:
u can be using it at perpendicular and place it's center on point A
hope that helps a bit-
It's the second one for sure
Answer:
85.1 (I think)
Step-by-step explanation:
2×2=4
5×2=10
5×6=30
(3×10)÷2=15
3squared+10squared=√109=10.44
5×10.44=52.2÷2=26.1
26.1+4+10+30+15=85.1
