<span>When artists pass away, the supply of their paintings most likely becomes collector's item or a memorabilia. These items are thought to be of high value or importance especially when the artist is associated to a specific event in the history. The items are sold at high prices or are kept in a museum.</span>
Cash flows to stakeholders of a firm include; interest and principle payments.
Answer:
Current yield is 6.17%
<em>YTD is 5.43%</em>
<em>YTC is 4.26%</em>
Explanation:
Tenor: 15 years
-> number of payment (NPer) is 30 (= 15 years * 2 for semiannual)
Coupon rate: 7.4%
- > semiannual payments (PMT): $37 = ($1000*7.4%/2)
Future value (FV): $1000
Present value (PV): $1200
Current yield = annual coupon/ current price = $37*2/$1200 = 6.17%
<u>Extra: </u>
We use excel to calculate yield to date (YTD) or nominal yield:
= Rate(Nper, PMT, - PV,FV) = Rate(30,37,-1200,1000) = 2.717% semiannual
-> annual rate is 5.43%
The bond issue is callable in 5 years at a call price of $1,074, then FV is $1074
Yield to call = rate(10,37,-1200,1074) = 2.13% semiannual
-> annual rate is 4.26%
The correct answer is the agent and principal will be jointly and severally liable on the contract.
In general, an agent is not accountable for contracts made; the principal is. However, the agent will be held culpable if he is not or only partially revealed, if the agent lacks or exceeds authorization, or if the agent entered into the transaction in a personal role.
When an agent works on behalf of the principle in interactions with a third party, a contractual relationship is formed between the main and the third party, and the agent is not personally accountable.
Therefore, the correct option is the agent and principal will be jointly and severally liable on the contract.
To know more about principal agent liability click here:
brainly.com/question/13056777
#SPJ4
Answer:
Answer:
$215
Explanation:
Eagles product has an EBIT of $400
Its tax rate is 30%
= 30/100
= 0.3
The depreciation is $16
The capital expenditures are $56
The planned increase in net working capital is $25
Therefore, the free cash flow to the firm can be calculated as follows
Free cash flow= EBIT(1-tax)+depreciation-capital expenditures- change in working capital
= 400(1-0.3)+16-56-25
= 400-120+16-56-25
= $215
Hence the free cash flow to the firm is $215
