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valentinak56 [21]
4 years ago
14

A subcontractor is responsible for outfitting six satellites that will be used for solar research. Four of the six have been com

pleted in a total of 600 hours. If the crew has a 75% learning curve, how long should it take them to finish the last two units?
Business
1 answer:
BlackZzzverrR [31]4 years ago
5 0

Answer: ∑Tₓ = 201.222

time required to complete the last two units is 201.222 minutes

Explanation:

Given that,

total time required to four units is 600 hours,

Learning curve applied is 75% and from the learning curve coefficient table, total time factor to complete four units at 75% learning curve is 2.946

so

∑Tₙ = T₁ × total time factor

{ ∑Tₙ is total time required to complete all the units which is 600 hrs, T₁ is Time for first unit, total time factor = 2.946 }

we substitute

∑T₄ = ∑T₁ × total time factor

600 = ∑T₁ × 2.946

∑T₁  = 600/2.946

∑T₁  = 203.666 minutes

Now to get the total time required to complete 6 units, we say:

∑T₆ = ∑T₁ × total time factor

Note that total time factor at this point changes;

( from the learning curve coefficient table, total time factor to complete 6 units at 75% learning curve is 3.934)

so we substitute

∑T₆ = 203.666 × 3.934

∑T₆ = 801.222

Now to find how long should it take them to finish the last two units, we say

∑Tₓ = ∑T₆ - ∑T₄

∑Tₓ = 801.222 - 600

∑Tₓ = 201.222

Therefore time required to complete the last two units is 201.222 minutes

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The expense recognition (matching) principle, as applied to bad debts, requires: Multiple Choice That bad debts not be written o
Charra [1.4K]

Answer:

The use of the allowance method of accounting for bad debts.

Explanation:

We use the allowance method to match the expected ad debt with the sales or account receivables which generates.

As sales of a givne month can be declared uncollectible after several month using a direct method we are putting the burden of the uncollectible in another accounting period while leaving the one which did that sale untouched.

The allowance makesthe expense in the same time period thus, it follows the recognition principle.

5 0
3 years ago
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The WeKnowThisStuff Company issued a $1,000 par value, 6% coupon, 8 year bond. The interest is paid semiannually and the market
Stella [2.4K]

Answer:

$1,032.01

Explanation:

Given:

Face value of bond (FV) = $1,000

Coupon rate = 6% annual rate or 6% / 2 = 3% semi-annual rate

Coupon payment (pmt) = 0.03 × $1,000

                            = $30

Rate = 5.5% annually or 5.5 / 2 = 2.75%

Time period (nper) = 8 × 2 = 16 periods

Current value of bond is present value of bond which can be computed using spreadsheet function =PV(rate,nper,pmt,FV)

So, present value of bond is $1,032.01.

PV is negative as it's cash outflow.

8 0
3 years ago
A company currently pays a dividend of $3.4 per share (D0 = $3.4). It is estimated that the company's dividend will grow at a ra
ArbitrLikvidat [17]

Answer:

Current price of stock =$128.06

Explanation:

The Dividend Valuation Model is a technique used to value the worth of an asset. According to this model, the worth of an asset is the sum of the present values of its future cash flows discounted at the required rate of return.

The model is given as

P = D× g/(r-g)

P- price, D- dividend payable in year 1, r -cost of equity, g - growth rate in dividend

Cost of equity

The cost of equity can be calculated using the Capital Asset Model (CAPM).

Ke= Rf +β(Rm-Rf)  

Ke =? , Rf- 6.5%, (Rm-Rf)- 1.5, β- 1.3

Ke=6.5% + 1.3× (1.5)= 8.45%

Stock price

PV of dividend in year 1 = 3.4× 1.17× 1.0845^(-1)=3.668

PV of dividend in year 2 =  3.4× 1.17^2× 1.0845^(-2) = 3.9572

<em>PV of dividend in year 3</em>

This will be done in two(2) steps:

Step 1- PV in year 2 terms

3.4× 1.17^2× 1.05/(0.0845- 0.05)= 141.651

Step 2- PV in year 0

141.6513913× 1.0845^(-2)= 120.4375

Current piece of stock =  3.668  + 3.957  + 120.4375 = 128.062

Current price of stock =$128.062

   

5 0
3 years ago
Location Score
dolphi86 [110]

Answer and Explanation:

The computation of composite score for each location is shown below:-

Composite score for A is

= 0.15 × 89 + .20 × 75 + 0.18 × 92 + 0.27 × 92 + 0.10 × 93 + 0.10 × 90

= 88.05

 Composite score for B is

= 0.15 × 78 + .20 × 93 + 0.18 × 90 + 0.27 × 93 + 0.10 × 97 + 0.10 × 96

= 90.91

Composite score for C is

= 0.15 × 84 + .20 × 98 + 0.18 × 87 + 0.27 × 82 + 0.10 × 84 + 0.10 × 95

= 87.90

Therefore for computing the composite score for each location we simply multiply weight with A location and in the same manner of A, B and C

b. The maximum composite score from A, B and C is B

8 0
4 years ago
Kier Company issued $660,000 in bonds on January 1, Year 1. The bonds were issued at face value and carried a 5-year term to mat
yuradex [85]

Answer:

Interest Expense $39,600

Cash Flow from Operating Activities $39,600

Explanation:

Payment of Interest Expense is the cash expense paid during the year which is deducted from the operating profit in the calculation of net income which is used to determine the cash flow from operating activities.

Interest on the Bond = $660,000 x 6% = $39,600

At the time of payment Journal Entry will be as follow

Dr. Interest Expense   $39,600

Cr. Cash                       $39,600

As the cash is paid against the operating activities.

3 0
3 years ago
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