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krok68 [10]
3 years ago
8

. Gibson Company sales for the year 2019 were $4.5 million. The firm’s variable operating cost ratio was 0.45 and fixed costs (t

hat is, overhead and depreciation) were $1 million. Its average (and marginal) income tax rate is 25 percent. Currently, the firm has $2.4 million of long-term bank loans outstanding at an average interest rate of 12 percent. The remainder of the firm’s capital structure consists of common stock (110,000 shares outstanding at the present time). a. Calculate Gibson’s degree of combined leverage for 2019. b. Gibson is forecasting a 15 percent increase in sales for this year (2020). Furthermore, the firm is planning to purchase additional labor-saving equipment which will increase fixed costs by $200,000 and will reduce the variable cost ratio to 0.42. Financing this equipment with debt will require additional bank loans of $900,000. Calculate Gibson’s expected degree of combined leverage for 2020. c. Determine how much Gibson must reduce its interest expenses in 2020 (for example, through the sale of common stock) to maintain its DCL at the 2019 level. d. Assuming that the debt is permanent (or perpetual) what is the reduction in debt associated with the interest expense reduction in part c?
Business
1 answer:
MariettaO [177]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

See solutions below

Explanation:

1. The degree of combined leverage

= (Sales - Variable costs) / EBIT - Interest

Sales = $4.5 million

Variable costs = 0.45 × $4.5 million

= $2,025,000

EBIT = $4,500,000 - $2,025,000 - $1,000,000

= $1,475,000

Interest = 12% × $2,400,000

= $288,000

Therefore,

DCL = [$4,500,000 - $2,025,000] / $1,475,000 - $288,000

= $2,475,000 / $1,187,000

= 2.09

2. Gibson expected degree of leverage

Sales = 15% × $4.5 million

= $5,175,000

Fixed cost = $200,000 + $1,000,000

= $1,200,000

Variable cost = $0.42 × $2,025,000 - $2,025,000

= $2,025,000 - $850,500

= $1,174,500

EBIT = $5,175,000 - $1,174,500 - $1,200,000

= $2,800,500

Interest = $2,400,000 + $900,000

= 12% × $3,300,000

= $396,000

DCL = $5,175,000 - $1,174,500 / $2,800,500 - $396,000

= $4,000,500 / $2,404,500

= 1.66

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Hi, first we need to establish the cash flow of the bond, so we can find the after tax cost of the bond. After we find the after tax cash flow of the bond, we must use the IRR function of MS Excel to find the semi-annual cost of this debt, but, all after tax debts should be presented in annual basis. Let me walk you through the process. First, let me show you how it should look.

Face Value      100  

price              101,4  

years                7 years  

Coupon                9%  

Coupon                4,5% semi-annually  

tax                      30%  

   

Per       Cash Flow After Tax  

0                 101,4 101,4  

1                   -4,5 -3,15  

2                   -4,5 -3,15  

3                   -4,5 -3,15  

4                   -4,5 -3,15  

5                   -4,5 -3,15  

6                   -4,5 -3,15  

7                   -4,5 -3,15  

8                   -4,5 -3,15  

9                  -4,5 -3,15  

10                  -4,5 -3,15  

11                  -4,5 -3,15  

12                  -4,5 -3,15  

13                  -4,5 -3,15  

14               -104,5 -73,15  

   

Cost of Debt 1,04% semi-annually

Cost of Debt 2,09% annually

Ok, now, as you can see, there are 14 periods, that is because the coupon is paid semi-annually, the way to find the cash flow (I mean, the bond´s coupon) is:

Coupon (semi-annual)=(Face Value)x\frac{0.09}{2} =4.5

At the end (period 14), we need to add the face value and the coupon, that is $100+$4.5=$104.5

Now, to find the value of the third column (after-tax cost), we do the following.

After-tax-Cost=Couponx(1-taxes)=4.5(1-0.3)=3.15\\

Now, consider this, you are receiving 101.4 for every 100 of debt, that means that you are receiving more money than the emission value, and paying interests over 100 instead of 101.4, that is why we have to use the IRR excel function to find out the semi-annual cost of debt. That is, 1.04%.

Now, to make this an effective annual rate, we calculate it like this.

EffectiveAnnualRate=(1+semi-annual Rate)^{\frac{1}{2} }  -1=(1+0.0104)^{\frac{1}{2} } -1=0.0209

Finally, the after-tax cost of this debt is = 2.09%

Best of luck.

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