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Oliga [24]
3 years ago
10

What is an amount of money multiplied by the interest rate and the amount of time that the money will be earning interest? Prese

nt value Future value Past value None of the above
PLZ HURRY I NEED HELP
Business
2 answers:
gulaghasi [49]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Future value

Explanation:

it is right i took quiz and i got it right

laiz [17]3 years ago
6 0

This is future value by defnition

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You are a sales director for a company and have noticed employees are showing up towork dressed inappropriately. customers have
pochemuha
You could say something like "From this day forth all staff in the in-house sales department and <span>the traveling sales department. All men must wear suit and tie, and all women must be dressed in jeans and a long sleeve shirt!?"</span>
8 0
2 years ago
Use the following Year 3 data: Other Selling and Administrative Expenses $ 1,052,000 Other Expenses 249,300 Sales Revenue 4,887,
Talja [164]

Answer:

$222,450

Explanation:

Computation of annual income statement for Kvass Inc. is shown below

Sales revenue

$4,887,000

Less:

Selling and admn expenses

($1,052,000)

Other expenses

($249,300)

Advertising and promotion expenses

($553,350)

Salaries and wages expenses

($2,527,800)

Income tax expenses

($167,350)

Interest expense

($114,750)

Net income

$222,450

8 0
3 years ago
Asset management ratios are used to measure how effectively a firm manages its assets, by relating the amount a firm has investe
gtnhenbr [62]

Answer:

Crawford Construction

1. Crawford Construction sold and replaced its inventory:

a. 4.14 x

2. With Construction Industry Inventory Turnover Ratio as 4.55x, Crawford Construction:

b. Crawford Construction is holding more inventory per dollar of sales compared to the industry average

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Quick ratio = 2.00x,

Cash = $36,225

Accounts receivable = $20,125

Inventory = x

x= $80,500 - 36,225 - 20,125 = $24,150

Total current assets = $80,500

Total current liabilities = $28,175

Annual sales = $100,000

Using annual sales instead of cost of goods sold to calculate the inventory turnover, = Turnover/Inventory = $100,000/$24,150 = 4.14x

b) Quick ratio equals (Current assets - Inventory)/Current Liabilities.  Computing the quick ratio in place of the current ratio can be used to identify how Crawford Construction can meet its current (short-term) debts without selling inventory and recovering funds from the sale.

c) The Inventory Turnover Ratio divides the cost of goods sold by the average inventory.  The Sales value can approximate the cost of goods sold.  The ratio shows the efficiency of Crawford Construction in handling its inventory.  The higher the value of the ratio, the better, showing that Crawford is more efficient when it gets a higher turnover ratio.

7 0
2 years ago
Each machine must be run by one of 19 cross-trained workers who are each available 35 hours per week. The plant has 10 type 1 ma
Mrac [35]

Answer:

The Linear programming model is given as below

Profit Function: P=90X+120Y+150Z

Constraints:

2X+2Y+Z\leq 400

3X+4Y+6Z\leq 240

4X+6Y+5Z\leq 320

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{40}\leq 10

\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{40}\leq 6

\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{40}\leq 8

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}+\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}+\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}\leq 19

Explanation:

As the question is not complete, the complete question is found online and is attached herewith.

Let the number of product 1 to be produced is X, that of product 2 is Y and product 3 is Z

so  the maximizing function is the profit function which is given as

P=90X+120Y+150Z

Now as the number of hours in a week are 40 and there are a total of 10 type 1 machines so the total number of machine 1 hours are 40*10=400 hours

As from the given table product 1 uses 2 machine hours of machine 1, product 2 uses 2 machine hours of machine 1 and product 3 uses 1 hour of machine 1 so

2X+2Y+Z\leq 400

Now as the number of hours in a week are 40 and there are a total of 6 type 2 machines so the total number of machine 2 hours are 40*6=240 hours

As from the given table product 1 uses 3 machine hours of machine 2, product 2 uses 4 machine hours of machine 2 and product 3 uses 6 hour of machine 2 so

3X+4Y+6Z\leq 240

Now as the number of hours in a week are 40 and there are a total of 8 type 3 machines so the total number of machine 3 hours are 40*8=320 hours

As from the given table product 1 uses 4 machine hours of machine 3, product 2 uses 6 machine hours of machine 3 and product 3 uses 5 hour of machine 3 so

4X+6Y+5Z\leq 320

Now as the machine 1 is used as 2X+2Y+Z in a week and the week is of 40 hours so the number of machines to be used are given as

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{40}\leq 10

Now as the machine 2 is used as 3X+4Y+6Z in a week and the week is of 40 hours so the number of machines to be used are given as

\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{40}\leq 6

Now as the machine 3 is used as 4X+6Y+5Z in a week and the week is of 40 hours so the number of machines to be used are given as

\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{40}\leq 8

Now the workers are available for 35 hours so the worker available at the machine 1 is given as

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}

That of machine 2 is given as

\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}

That of machine 3 is given as

\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}

As the total number of workers is 19 so the constraint is given as

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}+\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}+\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}\leq 19

So the Linear programming model is given as below

Profit Function: P=90X+120Y+150Z

Constraints:

2X+2Y+Z\leq 400

3X+4Y+6Z\leq 240

4X+6Y+5Z\leq 320

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{40}\leq 10

\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{40}\leq 6

\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{40}\leq 8

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}+\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}+\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}\leq 19

4 0
3 years ago
On july 25, henry company's accountant prepared a check for august's rent payment. henry company mails the checkon july 27 to th
erastovalidia [21]
<span>Henry Company should record the rent expense on August 2. Although the check was prepared on July 25 and mailed on July 27, it should not be recorded until the check is actually cashed.</span>
4 0
3 years ago
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