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oksian1 [2.3K]
3 years ago
8

Is 40/1000 equivalent to 40%

Mathematics
2 answers:
blagie [28]3 years ago
5 0

No. 40/1000 is 4%. 40/100 is actually 40 percent.

V125BC [204]3 years ago
3 0
No, 40/1000 is equal to 4%. 40/100 or 400/1000 would be 40%
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From the question, we are to find the probability that a point chosen at random lies in the shaded region.

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Learn more on Calculating area of a shaded region here: brainly.com/question/23629261

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