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Pie
3 years ago
12

Regardless of the inventory costing system used, cost of goods available for sale must be allocated at the end of the period bet

ween beginning inventory and net purchases during the period. ending inventory and beginning inventory. net purchases during the period and ending inventory. ending inventory and cost of goods sold. beginning inventory and cost of goods sold.
Business
1 answer:
MaRussiya [10]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The correct answer is ending inventory and cost of goods sold

Explanation:

Cost of goods available for sale is defined as the maximum amount of the inventory or the goods which the company could possibly sell during the fiscal or accounting period.

The cost of goods which are available for sale need to be allocated among the cost of goods sold and the ending inventory at the end of the year, where the cost of goods equals to the cost of goods available for sale subtract the ending inventory.

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When an organization has employees of different backgrounds and skill sets, it has greater and will be better than monocultural
creativ13 [48]

N.B: I don't understand your question fully and neither can i find the complete question anywhere on the internet so im going to answer this sentence and hope it helps you.

Answer:

True

Explanation:

When a company has employees from different backgrounds and with different skills set, it helps the company come up with a lot of innovations that cuts across different cultures, thereby expanding their own range of services and/or goods. Also it helps in problem solving as each employee can come to the table with various ways of solving a problem.

This situation can be called diversity of thoughts.

Cheers.

7 0
3 years ago
What is the median of the following string of values ? 55,18,58,49,8,77,62,26,7,91
Zinaida [17]

The median of all the string numbers would be 52

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
an effect of the sarbanes-oxley act of 2002 was to: multiple choice reduce the circumstances in which one may file securities wi
mixer [17]

An effect of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 was to reduce the accounting profession’s level of self-regulation.

<h3>What did the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 do?</h3>

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 was passed in the wake of the Enron and WorldCom financial sagas in order to reduce the incidence of companies misleading their stockholders.

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 led to more regulation over the accounting profession and a reduction in their self-regulation because large accounting companies had been implicated in the saga.

Find out more on the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 at brainly.com/question/13398903

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4 0
1 year ago
If the government decided that each family needs a minimum income of $25,000 and promised to make up the difference between what
Amiraneli [1.4K]

Answer:

d. All of the above are correct.

Explanation:

In the case when the government decided that each kind of family required atleast income i.e. $25,000 so it would decrease the work incentive for earning till to $25,000 also it should be taxed by the government. In addition to this, in the case when the workers are discouraged so they miss on the job training and limits their capability for improving out their skills

So as per the given scenario, the option d is correct

7 0
3 years ago
A common carrier bailee generally would avoid liability for loss of goods entrusted to its care if the goods area. Stolen by an
larisa86 [58]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "D": Improperly packed by the party shipping them.

Explanation:

Carriers are liable for the loss of goods being transported by them under three scenarios: acts of God (<em>because they are unpredictable</em>), acts of the shipper (<em>negligence of the person providing with the goods being transported</em>), and acts of a public enemy (<em>a country engaging into the war</em>).

In that case, <em>the carrier is likely not to be found liable if the shipping items were incorrectly packaged the sending party</em>.

8 0
3 years ago
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