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shtirl [24]
3 years ago
13

A family's ability to buy goods and services depends largely on its permanent income, which is its normal, or average, income. p

ermanent income, which is the lowest annual income the family has received over a 10-year period. transitory income, which is the measure of income used by the government to analyze the distribution of income and the poverty rate. transitory income, which is its money income plus any in-kind transfers it receives.
Business
1 answer:
Setler79 [48]3 years ago
7 0
<span>The permanent income is the factor most needed to understand how much can be bought. This figure gives a relative basis for figuring out the average amount of goods and services a person can purchase over a given time frame. The larger the permanent income, the larger the basket of goods and services available to them.</span>
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Which inventory costing method results in the lowest net income during a period of rising inventory​ costs?.
scoray [572]

Due to the greatest cost of goods sold, the LIFO (Last In Last Out) technique displays the lowest net profitability. Compared to the other techniques of inventory valuation, the cost of goods sold for the LIFO approach is the greatest.

<h3>Which technique of inventory valuation will result in the lowest net profit?</h3>

The application of LIFO will produce the lowest net income and the greatest estimated cost of goods sold among the three options during periods of inflation.

<h3>Which method of inventory has the lowest income tax rate?</h3>

LIFO is the inventory cost flow method that yields the lowest income tax liability. A form of inventory cost flow mechanism called last-in-first-out (LIFO) operates under the presumption that the last item acquired will be the first item to be sold.

<h3>In an era of inflation, which inventory method results in the lowest income tax?</h3>

Due to increasing COGS, LIFO leads to reduced net income (and taxes). However, under LIFO during inflation, there are fewer inventory write-downs. Results from average cost are in the middle of FIFO and LIFO.

To Know more about techniques

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7 0
2 years ago
A pegged exchange rate means the value of the currency is fixed relative to a reference currency
ruslelena [56]
Are you asking if it’s true or false?
5 0
3 years ago
A free market exists
Vaselesa [24]
<span>A free market exists when the government places few restrictions on how a good or a service can be produced or sold or on how a factor of production can be employed. A free market is an economic system where prices are decided on if there is unrestricted competition between privately owned businesses. Supply and demand are the main factors in a free market and there is little to no government control. </span>
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Several employees at a fast-food restaurant call in sick at the last minute. The manager tries to fill in but doesn't know how t
VikaD [51]

Answer:  Trained incapacity

Explanation: In simple words, it refers to the idea that after gaining a certain kind of education, skill or experience etc. the level of thinking of an individual cannot go beyond a certain limit.

In the given case, the manager was the upper level employee and was not habitual to the work that was performed by the workers in the restaurant.

Therefore this position in the workplace limited his skills of performing only the managerial work.

Hence from the above we can conclude that the above case depicts trained incapacity.

3 0
3 years ago
At the end of the current year, Accounts Receivable has a balance of $590,000; Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has a debit balan
denpristay [2]

Answer and Explanation:

a. The computation of uncollectible accounts and Journal entry is shown below:-

Bad Debt expenses Dr, $6,650

($2,660,000 × 1 ÷ 4× 1%)

       To Allowance for doubtful accounts $6,650

(Being uncollectible accounts is recorded)

b. The computation of Accounts Receivable, Allowance for Doubtful Accounts, and Bad Debt Expense is shown below:-

Accounts receivable = $590,000

Allowance for Doubtful Accounts = (Sales of the year × 1 ÷ 4 × 1%) - Credit balance

= ($2,660,000 × 1 ÷ 4 × 1%) - $5,500

= $6,650 - $5,500

= $1,150

Bad debt expenses = Sales of the year × 1 ÷ 4 × 1%

= $2,660,000 × 1 ÷ 4 × 1%

= $6,650

c. The computation of net realizable value of accounts receivable is shown below:-

Net realizable value = Accounts receivable - Allowance for Doubtful Accounts

= $590,000 - $1,150

= $588,850

6 0
3 years ago
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