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3 years ago

!WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST AND 15 PTS PLEASE HELPPP!

2 answers:

6 0

Answer: Technology over the past 10 years has changed very much with more people having access to technology know it is easier for many people to communicate around the world which allows for globalization. This helps us trade more because of communication which allows to live in our world today.

Explanation: I got it right after writing this short paragraph so you should too good luck.

Neporo4naja [7]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

I.Introduction

II.Thesis

III.How access to communication is changing

A.Mobile-subscriber data

B.Internet-access data

IV.How technology is affecting trade

A.E-commerce data

V.Conclusion

Explanation:

im taking the assignment rn

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If the fixed costs for a product decrease and the variable costs (as a percentage of sales dollars) decrease, what will be the e

il63 [147K]

Answer:

Option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

Contribution margin ratio is the difference between the selling price of the product and the variable cost of the product.

Contribution margin ratio = Selling price - Variable cost

Now, if there is a decrease in the fixed costs and variable costs of the product then as a result contribution margin ratio increases because of the fall in variable cost.

Break even point = (Fixed expense ÷ Contribution margin ratio)

If there is an increase in the contribution margin ration and a reduction in the fixed expense then as a result break even point decreases.

Increased; Decreased

7 0

3 years ago

Vasco Company purchased equipment on January 1, 2001 at a purchase price of $50,000. Vasco paid $2,500 in shipping costs on the

Lynna [10]

Answer:

The amount of depreciation expense is $3,871.86.

Explanation:

Sum-of-the-years digits method is determined by: (Remaining useful life/Sum of the years' digits) x Depreciable cost.

Depreciable cost = Cost - Salvage value

Depreciable cost = $50,000 + $2,500 - $5,000 = $47,500

Insurance premium is usually for a period of 1 year. This will be treated as prepayment instead of being added to the cost of the equipment. Shipping cost is added based on the recommendation of IAS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment.

Depreciation expense = 6/21 x $47,500 = $13,571.43 for Year 2001

Depreciation expense = 5/21 x $47,500 = $11,309.52 for Year 2002

As at December 2002, the accumulated depreciation will be $13,571.43 + $11,309.52 = $24,880.95; so, net book value is $52,500 - $24,880.95 = $27,619.05.

Change in estimate: 8/55 x $27,619.05 - $1,000 = $3,871.86.

55 = 10+9+8+7+6+5+4+3+2+1

7 0

3 years ago

One way that the world bank might experience an adverse selection in its own lending is if __________.

Sloan [31]

Adverse selection describes situations when high-risk persons are more likely to receive insurance or when one bargaining side has important knowledge that the other does not. Our goal is to influence decision-makers, both inside and outside of government, to consider the future and adopt long-term plans.

When vendors and/or purchasers have different knowledge about a certain component of a product's quality, this is referred to as adverse selection. Thus, those who work in hazardous environments or lead high-risk lives are more likely to buy life or disability insurance, knowing that they will likely be able to use it.

To learn more on world bank

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6 0

2 years ago

Harris Co. is considering a 12-year project that is estimated to cost $900,000 and has no residual value. Harris seeks to earn a

masha68 [24]

Answer:

annual income = $70,292.52

Explanation:

initial outlay $900,000

in order to determine the net cash flows per year we can use the present value of an ordinary annuity:

PV = annual cash flow x annuity factor

PV = $900,000
annuity factor, 15%, 12 years = 6.1944

annual cash flow = $900,000 / 6.1944 = $145,292.52

annual cash flow = [(revenue - operating costs - depreciation) x (1 - tax rate)] + depreciation

revenue - operating costs - depreciation = annual income
tax rate = 0?
depreciation = $900,000 / 12 = $75,000

$145,292.52 = annual income + $75,000

annual income = $145,292.52 - $75,000 = $70,292.52

3 0

3 years ago

Tyler Tooling Company uses a job order cost system with overhead applied to products on the basis of machine hours. For the upco

inessss [21]

Answer:

Over Applied Overhead = $ 4000

Actual Manufacturing Overhead = $45,000

Manufacturing Overhead Applied = $ 49,000

Explanation:

Job 101 Job 102 Job 103

Total Direct materials $ 19,200 $ 14,400 $ 9,600 $ 43,200

Direct labor $ 28,800 $ 11,200 $ 9,600 $ 49,600

Machine hours 1,000 hrs 4,000 hrs 2,000 hrs 7,000 hours

Manufacturing overhead $ 7000 $ 28,000 14,000

Total $ 55,000 53,600 33,200

Actual overhead costs recorded during the first month of operations totaled $45,000.

Journal Entries

Sr. No Particulars Debit Credit

Job 102 Finished Goods 53,600

Work In Process 53,600

A journal entry showing the transfer of Job 102 into Finished Goods Inventory upon its completion.

Job 101 Sales 60,000

Cost Of Goods Sold 60,000

Journal entries to recognize the sales revenue and cost of goods sold for Job 101.

Job 101 Cost of Goods Sold 55,000

Finished Goods Inventory 55,000

Manufacturing Overhead Applied = $ 7000 + $ 28,000+14,000 = $ 49,000

Job 101 = 1000/60,000 * $ 420,000= $ 7000

Job 102 = 4000/60,000 * $ 420,000= $ 28000

Job 103 = 2000/60,000 * $ 420,000= $ 14000

Actual Manufacturing Overhead = $45,000

Over Applied Overhead = $ 4000

Manufacturing Overhead Accounts $ 4000 debit

Cost of Goods Sold $ 4000 Credit

Entry to transfer the balance of the Manufacturing Overhead account to Cost of Goods Sold.

(Entry to reduce the amount of Over applied Overhead)

6 0

3 years ago