All categories

4 years ago

Please help, which plan should you use to prove that an angle of ABCD is supplementary to both of its consecutive angles?

Mathematics

1 answer:

Luda [366]4 years ago

8 0

Use angles on straight line add up to 180. Isosceles is all same angle

You might be interested in

You have just used the network planning model and found the critical path length is 30 days and the variance of the critical pat

joja [24]

Answer:

0.726 is the probability that the project will be completed in 33 days or less.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given the following information in the question:

Mean, μ = 30 days

Variance = 25 days

Standard Deviation,

$\sigma = \sqrt{\text{Variance}} = \sqrt{25} = 5$

We assume that the distribution of path length is a bell shaped distribution that is a normal distribution.

Formula:

$z_{score} = \displaystyle\frac{x-\mu}{\sigma}$

P(completed in 33 days or less)

$P( x \leq 33) = P( z \leq \displaystyle\frac{33 - 30}{5}) = P(z \leq 0.6)$

Calculation the value from standard normal z table, we have,

$P(x \leq 33) = 0.726 = 72.6\%$

0.726 is the probability that the project will be completed in 33 days or less.

8 0

3 years ago

K(t) = 10t - 19 k(-5) =

DanielleElmas [232]

Answer:

-69

Step-by-step explanation:

k(-5) = 10*-5 -19

= -50-19

=-69

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Sofia invests her money in an account paying 7% interest compounded semiannually. What is the effective annual yield on this acc

vfiekz [6]

Answer:

7.12

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for the effective annual yield is given as:

i = ( 1 + r/m)^m - 1

Where

i = Effective Annual yield

r = interest rate = 7% = 0.07

m= compounding frequency = semi annually = 2

i = ( 1 + 0.07/2)² - 1

i = (1 + 0.035)² - 1

= 1.035² - 1

= 1.071225 - 1

= 0.071225

Converting to percentage

0.071225 × 100

= 7.1225%

Approximately to 2 decimal places = 7.12

Therefore, the annual effective yield = 7.12

4 0

3 years ago

a wire of length 200 cm is cut into two parts and each part is bent to form a square.If the area of the larger square is 9 times

diamong [38]

Answer:

The perimeter of the larger square is $150cm.$

Step-by-step explanation:

First of all, let one part of it be " $x$ "

and the other part of it " $200-x$ "

Now to solve this :

The area of the square = $L^2$

The area of one part of the square = $x^2$

The area of the other part of the square = $(200-x)^2$

$9x^2= (200-x)^2\\9x^2=40000-400x+x^2$

Now, add, $-4x^2$ to both the sides :

$9x^2-9x^2=40000-400x+x^2-9x^2\\-1(8x^2+400x-40000)=0$

Now, take out the "8" which is common :

$-8(x^2+50x-5000)=0$

Now, divide it by $-8$ :

$x^2+100x-50x-5000=0\\x(x+100)-50(x+100)=0\\(x+100)(x-50)=0\\$

$x=-100$ or $50$

So, now we know that :

One of the part is = $50cm$

And the other part is = $150cm$

Thus the perimeter of the larger square is = $150cm$

3 0

3 years ago

HELP ASAPPPP!!! HAUSBJANAHSJISIS

JulijaS [17]

1: 72
2: 32
3: 1/2

I think this is it

6 0

3 years ago