Answer:
Option D!
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
If k = −1 then the system has no solutions.
If k = 2 then the system has infinitely many solutions.
The system cannot have unique solution.
Step-by-step explanation:
We have the following system of equations
The augmented matrix is
![\left[\begin{array}{cccc}1&-2&3&2\\1&1&1&k\\2&-1&4&k^2\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bcccc%7D1%26-2%263%262%5C%5C1%261%261%26k%5C%5C2%26-1%264%26k%5E2%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
The reduction of this matrix to row-echelon form is outlined below.
![\left[\begin{array}{cccc}1&-2&3&2\\0&3&-2&k-2\\2&-1&4&k^2\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bcccc%7D1%26-2%263%262%5C%5C0%263%26-2%26k-2%5C%5C2%26-1%264%26k%5E2%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
![\left[\begin{array}{cccc}1&-2&3&2\\0&3&-2&k-2\\0&3&-2&k^2-4\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bcccc%7D1%26-2%263%262%5C%5C0%263%26-2%26k-2%5C%5C0%263%26-2%26k%5E2-4%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
![\left[\begin{array}{cccc}1&-2&3&2\\0&3&-2&k-2\\0&0&0&k^2-k-2\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bcccc%7D1%26-2%263%262%5C%5C0%263%26-2%26k-2%5C%5C0%260%260%26k%5E2-k-2%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
The last row determines, if there are solutions or not. To be consistent, we must have k such that
Case k = −1:
![\left[\begin{array}{ccc|c}1&-2&3&2\\0&3&-2&-1-2\\0&0&0&(-1)^2-(-1)-2\end{array}\right] \rightarrow \left[\begin{array}{ccc|c}1&-2&3&2\\0&3&-2&-3\\0&0&0&-2\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bccc%7Cc%7D1%26-2%263%262%5C%5C0%263%26-2%26-1-2%5C%5C0%260%260%26%28-1%29%5E2-%28-1%29-2%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D%20%5Crightarrow%20%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bccc%7Cc%7D1%26-2%263%262%5C%5C0%263%26-2%26-3%5C%5C0%260%260%26-2%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
If k = −1 then the last equation becomes 0 = −2 which is impossible.Therefore, the system has no solutions.
Case k = 2:
![\left[\begin{array}{ccc|c}1&-2&3&2\\0&3&-2&2-2\\0&0&0&(2)^2-(2)-2\end{array}\right] \rightarrow \left[\begin{array}{ccc|c}1&-2&3&2\\0&3&-2&0\\0&0&0&0\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bccc%7Cc%7D1%26-2%263%262%5C%5C0%263%26-2%262-2%5C%5C0%260%260%26%282%29%5E2-%282%29-2%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D%20%5Crightarrow%20%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bccc%7Cc%7D1%26-2%263%262%5C%5C0%263%26-2%260%5C%5C0%260%260%260%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
This gives the infinite many solution.
Answer:
Suppose that we have two line segments, AB and CD. We know that they have the same length.
I know that AB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯=CD¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ means AB is identical to CD (aka. They are the same lines), and also that AB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯≅CD¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ means that AB and CD have the same size, but what does AB=CD mean?
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
The hourly wage is $8.55 per hour
Step-by-step explanation:
Step 1: Determine the expression for the gross pay
Total gross pay=(Unit rate per hour×number of hours(≤40))+(Overtime rate×number of overtime hours)
where;
Total gross pay=$380.48
Unit rate per hour=x
Number of hours=40 hours
Overtime rate=x×(1 1/2)=1.5 x
Number of overtime hours=3 hours
Step 2: Replace to solve for hourly wage
380.48=(x×40)+(1.5 x)×3
40 x+4.5 x=380.48
44.5 x=380.48
x=380.48/44.5
x=8.55
The hourly wage is $8.55 per hour
46.2 dollars for the large necklaces and 14 dollars and seventy cents for the small necklaces therefore she will earn $60.9
