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adelina 88 [10]
3 years ago
10

Prove that one of every three consecutive positive integer is divisible by 3

Mathematics
1 answer:
Inessa05 [86]3 years ago
5 0
Hello : 
all n in N ; n(n+1)(n+2) = 3a    a in  N  or : <span>≡ 0 (mod 3)
1 ) n </span><span>≡ 0 ( mod 3)...(1)

     n+1 </span>≡ 1 ( mod 3)...(2)
      n+2 ≡ 2 ( mod 3)...(3)
by (1), (2), (3)  : n(n+1)(n+2) ≡ 0×1×2   ( mod 3)   : ≡ 0 (mod 3)
2) n ≡ 1 ( mod 3)...(1)

     n+1 ≡ 2 ( mod 3)...(2)
      n+2 ≡ 3 ( mod 3)...(3)
by (1), (2), (3)  : n(n+1)(n+2) ≡ 1×2 × 3  ( mod 3)   : ≡ 0 (mod 3) , 6≡ 0 (mod)
 3) n  ≡ 2 ( mod 3)...(1)

     n+1 ≡ 3 ( mod 3)...(2)
      n+2 ≡ 4 ( mod 3)...(3)
by (1), (2), (3)  : n(n+1)(n+2) ≡ 2×3 × 4  ( mod 3)   : ≡ 0 (mod 3) , 24≡ 0      (mod3)
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The blood pressure in millimeters was measured for a large sample of people. The average pressure is 140 mm, and the SD of the m
Amanda [17]

Answer:

Kindly check explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the following :

Assum a normal distribution :

Mean (m) = 140 mm

Standard deviation (sd) = 20 mm

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Zscore = (x - m) / sd

X = 115 mm

(115 - 140) / 20

-25/20 = - 0.625 = - 0.63

P(z<-0.63) = 0.2643

X = 165 mm

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P(z< 0.63) = 0.7357

0.7357 - 0.2643 = 0.4714 = 47.14%

B.) The percentage of people with blood pressure between 140 and 165 mm.

Zscore = (x - m) / sd

X = 140 mm

(140 - 140) / 20

0/20 = 0 = 0

P(z<0) = 0.5000

X = 165 mm

(165 - 140) / 20

25/20 = 0.625 = 0.63

P(z< 0.63) = 0.7357

0.7357 - 0.5000 = 0.2357 = 23.57%

C.) ___ The percentage of people with blood pressure over 165 mm.

X = 165mm

(165 - 140) / 20

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8 0
3 years ago
Evaluate the infinite sum:
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Consider the <em>k</em>-th partial sum,

S_k = 1 + \dfrac2\pi + \dfrac3{\pi^2} + \cdots + \dfrac k{\pi^{k-1}}

More compactly,

\displaystyle S_k = \sum_{i=1}^k \frac i{\pi^{i-1}} = \frac{(1-\pi)k+\pi^{k+1}-\pi}{(1-\pi)^2\pi^{k-1}}

(this is just another case of a similar sum you asked about a while ago [24494877])

The infinite sum is the limit of the partial sum as <em>k</em> goes to infinity. We have

\displaystyle \lim_{k\to\infty} \frac{(1-\pi)k+\pi^{k+1}-\pi}{(1-\pi)^2\pi^{k-1}} = \frac\pi{(1-\pi)^2} \lim_{k\to\infty} \left(\frac{(1-\pi)k}{\pi^k} + \pi - \frac1{\pi^{k-1}} \right) = \boxed{\frac{\pi^2}{(1-\pi)^2}}

since the non-constant terms in the limit converge to 0.

Alternatively, recall that for |<em>x</em>| < 1, we have

\dfrac1{1-x} = \displaystyle \sum_{n=0}^\infty x^n

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also valid for |<em>x</em>| < 1. Take <em>x</em> = 1/<em>π</em> and you get the sum you want to compute.

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What steps would you do to solve n/7+3 greater than or equal to -4?
user100 [1]

Answer:

the answer is n ≥ -49

here are the steps for solving-

the problem Is like  n/7+3 ≥ -4

1. First subtract 3 from both sides. After doing that, the inequation should be Like This:

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2. since 7 is in Division form, when it goes to RHS, You multiply.

So -7 times 7 Is -49

so the answer is n≥ -49

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