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Dovator [93]
3 years ago
15

did The Magna Carta include clauses regarding due process and the guarantee of a speedy and fair trial?

History
1 answer:
umka21 [38]3 years ago
8 0
<span>Due process of law is a constitutional guarantee that prevents governments from impacting citizens in an abusive way.  In its modern form, due process includes both procedural standards that courts must uphold in order to protect peoples’ personal liberty and a range of liberty interests that statutes and regulations must not infringe. It traces its origins to Chapter 39 of King John’s Magna Carta, which provides that no freeman will be seized, dispossessed of his property, or harmed except “by the law of the land,” an expression that referred to customary practices of the court. The phrase “due process of law” first appeared as a substitute for Magna Carta’s “the law of the land” in a 1354 statute of King Edward III that restated Magna Carta’s guarantee of the liberty of the subject.</span>
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why did the framers of the constitution stipulate that federal judges be appointed rather than elected and serve for life?
Hunter-Best [27]
<span>The Framers feared tyranny from the judiciary more than from the other two branches, so they placed deliberate limitations on the judiciary.</span>
4 0
3 years ago
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What was one major cause of conflict between england and spain in the 1500s
Anna [14]
There was a big religious difference between the two. Queen Elizabeth of England was largely Protestant while Spain was still Catholic. This led to a fight between the two (which the English won).
3 0
3 years ago
Which pattern of group relations (from the unit) do you think the chinese-american food represents?
Ilya [14]
They way that America had transformed traditional dishes to their own personal liking (also<span> known as amalgamation)
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5 0
4 years ago
Select all that apply.
Pavlova-9 [17]

Answer: textiles, mining, and manufacturing

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6 0
2 years ago
How does the Spanish American War demonstrate a shift in America’s foreign policy from Isolationism to Imperialism?
Reptile [31]

Answer:

The U.S. begins its "liberation" of countries

Explanation:

Since the 1820s the U.S. would stand by the monroe doctrine which prohibited European powers from having control in the Americas, Spain was one of the last European powers that still have a hold in the Americas, specifically the Caribbean. Since the beginning of the Spanish American war the U.S. began to either help or invade countries under imperialism, such as Cuba and the Philippines, though after helping the Philippines, a war broke out between the Philippines and the United States which placed the Philippines as a U.S. territory and later commonwealth. From here you see increasing imperialistic tendencies out of the original many isolationist policies established before the Spanish American War

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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