The value of the derivative of the function g(x) at x = 1 will be 1/3. Then the correct option is A.
<h3>What is an inverse function?</h3>
A function that may convert into another function is known as an inverse function or anti-function.
If the function is f(x) = sinx + 2x + 1.
Then the derivative of an inverse function g(x) of a function f(x) at a given value (a) will be

The derivative of f(x) will be
f'(x) = cos x + 2
Then the given value of a will be
a = 1
g(x) = f⁻¹(x)
put x = 0, then we have
f(0) = sin 0 + 2(0) + 1
f(0) = 1
Put x = 1, in the function f⁻¹(x). Then we have
f⁻¹(1) = 0
and
g(1) = 0
Then put a = 1, then we have

More about the inverse function link is given below.
brainly.com/question/2541698
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Hmm if I'm not mistaken, is just an "ordinary" annuity, thus
![\bf \qquad \qquad \textit{Future Value of an ordinary annuity} \\\\ A=pymnt\left[ \cfrac{\left( 1+\frac{r}{n} \right)^{nt}-1}{\frac{r}{n}} \right] \\\\\\](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cbf%20%5Cqquad%20%5Cqquad%20%5Ctextit%7BFuture%20Value%20of%20an%20ordinary%20annuity%7D%0A%5C%5C%5C%5C%0AA%3Dpymnt%5Cleft%5B%20%5Ccfrac%7B%5Cleft%28%201%2B%5Cfrac%7Br%7D%7Bn%7D%20%5Cright%29%5E%7Bnt%7D-1%7D%7B%5Cfrac%7Br%7D%7Bn%7D%7D%20%5Cright%5D%0A%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C)
Answer:
there are 10 black pensoles
Step-by-step explanation: