Answer:
(3, -6)
General Formulas and Concepts:
<u>Pre-Algebra</u>
Order of Operations: BPEMDAS
- Brackets
- Parenthesis
- Exponents
- Multiplication
- Division
- Addition
- Subtraction
Equality Properties
- Multiplication Property of Equality
- Division Property of Equality
- Addition Property of Equality
- Subtraction Property of Equality<u>
</u>
<u>Algebra I</u>
- Coordinates (x, y)
- Terms/Coefficients
- Solving systems of equations using substitution/elimination
Step-by-step explanation:
<u>Step 1: Define Systems</u>
y = 4x - 18
y = -5x + 9
<u>Step 2: Solve for </u><em><u>x</u></em>
<em>Substitution</em>
- Substitute in <em>y</em> [2nd Equation]: 4x - 18 = -5x + 9
- [Addition Property of Equality] Add 5x on both sides: 9x - 18 = 9
- [Addition Property of Equality] Add 18 on both sides: 9x = 27
- [Division Property of Equality] Divide 9 on both sides: x = 3
<u>Step 3: Solve for </u><em><u>y</u></em>
- Substitute in <em>x</em> [1st Equation]: y = 4(3) - 18
- Multiply: y = 12 - 18
- Subtract: y = -6
Answer:
5/12
7/12
125/36 = 3,47%
50/11 = 4,54%
Step-by-step explanation:
Probability a black sock is selected when a person chooses 1 sock = 5/12
Probability a white or brown sock is selected when a person chooses 1 sock =
7/12
Probability a person chooses 3 socks and selects a white first, a black second, and a brown last if the socks are replace = (4/12 * 5/12 * 3/12)*100 =125/36 = 3,47%
Pobability a person chooses 3 socks and selects a white first, a black second, and a brown last if the socks are NOT replace = (4/12 * 5/11 * 3/ 10)*100 = 50/11 = 4,54%
Answer:
$153
Step-by-step explanation:
To find the total cost, we have to calculate the area of one bead, then all of them:
Area of one bead = pi x r^2 = 3.14 x 0.5^2 = 3.14 x 0.25 = 0.765cm^2
Area of 20 beads = 0.765 x 20 = 15.3cm^2
Now, we are able to calculate the ultimate cost of coating:
If the cost is $10 per cm^2, then we have to find how much it costs to coat 15.3 cm^2.
15.3 x 10 = $153.
Hope this helps
Answer:
I think it is 4 white and 3 blue
Step-by-step explanation:
Because they have 3 cups of white then 6 cups of white so i think they multiplied it. Then they have 4 cups of blue then 8 cups of blue. So if you multiply it, it will give you the answer. I hope this is right and it helped and can you mark me brainliest!!!!!!!!
The variance of the binomial distribution of the number of households with landline service is 2.
<h3>What is the binomial probability distribution?</h3>
It is the probability of <u>exactly x successes on n repeated trials, with p probability</u> of a success on each trial.
The variance of the distribution is given by:
V(X) = np(1 - p)
In this problem, the parameters are given as follows:
n = 8, p = 0.504.
Hence the variance is given by:
V(X) = 8 x 0.504 x 0.496 = 2.
More can be learned about the binomial distribution at brainly.com/question/24863377
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