Answer:
∠AEC ≅ ∠BED by vertical angles theorem
Answer:
c, alternate interior angles theorem
Step-by-step explanation:
if 1 is equal to 3, and 3 is equal to 2 by alternate interior angles theorem, then that should also apply to angle 1.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Let f represent the number of first-class tickets that Sarah bought. Then she bought (16-f) coach tickets. Her total spending for airfare was ...
1140f +160(16-f) = 9420
980f +2560 = 9420 . . . . simplify
980f = 6860 . . . . . . . . subtract 2560
f = 7 . . . . . . . . . . . . . divide by 980; number of first-class tickets
(16-f) = 9 . . . . . coach tickets
Sarah bought 7 first-class tickets and 9 coach tickets.
Step-by-step explanation:
(A) To find inverse of f(x) = y = 1 / x - 3 :
<u>Transform in terms of x</u>
y = 1 / x - 3
x - 3 = 1 / y
x = 3 + 1 / y
<u>Exchange x with y</u> :
Therefore, g(x) is not inverse of f(x) and vice versa.
(B)
Domain of f(x) = R - {3}
Domain of g(x) = R - {0}
80% of x = 16
"of" translates to multiplication and 80% becomes 80/100.
80/100 × x = 16
0.8x = 16
0.8x/0.8 = 16/0.8
x = 16/0.8
x = 20
Your final answer is 80% of 20 is 16.
