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3 years ago

Complete the missing reasons in the proof below

Mathematics

1 answer:

olga_2 [115]3 years ago

3 0

Reason 2 is the reflexive property. Which basically says "any segment is congruent to itself"

Reason 3 is SSS (side side side) congruence theorem. The first two pair of sides are provided in statement 1 (given) and the third pair of sides is from statement 2

Reason 4 is CPCTC which stands for: corresponding sides of congruent triangles are congruent. In short, if two triangles are congruent, then the corresponding pieces are. In this case, angle N corresponds to angle P. So because the triangles MPO and MNO are congruent, then angle N = angle P. Notice how angle N and angle P are the middle letter of the two sequences MPO and MNO

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With a detailed explanation from the internet 1/(x-5)+3/(x+2)=4

irga5000 [103]

Answer:

$\boxed{ \sf x=\dfrac{4\pm\sqrt{43}}{2}}$

Explanation:

$\rightarrow \sf \dfrac{1}{x-5}+\dfrac{3}{x+2}=4$

make the denominators same

$\rightarrow \sf \dfrac{1(x+2)}{(x-5)(x+2)}+\dfrac{3(x-5)}{(x+2)(x-5)}=4$

join the fractions together

$\rightarrow \sf \dfrac{x+2+3x-15}{(x-5)(x+2)}=4$

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$\rightarrow \sf x = \dfrac{-\left(-16\right)\pm \sqrt{\left(-16\right)^2-4\cdot \:4\left(-27\right)}}{2\cdot \:4}$

simplify the following

$\rightarrow \sf x=\dfrac{4\pm\sqrt{43}}{2}$

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2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

In the equation 6x â 2 = â4x + 2, spencer claims that the first step is to add 4x to both sides. jeremiah claims that the first

snow_tiger [21]

Sample Response: Both are correct. As long as inverse operations and the properties of equality are used properly, both methods will generate the same solution. They both isolate the variable on one side of the equation.

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