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o-na [289]
3 years ago
5

An economics student makes the following statement: "It's easy to understand why the aggregatedemand curve is downward sloping:

When the price level increases, consumers substitute into less expensive products, thereby decreasing total spending in the economy." This statement is false because the aggregate demand curve isa.downward sloping because as prices rise, consumer real wealth declines, interest rates rise, and exports become more expensive
Business
1 answer:
mafiozo [28]3 years ago
5 0

<u>Answer</u>:

<u>True</u>

Explanation:

Indeed, the economics student was mistaken because aggregate demand <em>follows a pattern</em> that when prices rise, consumer wealth declines, the interest rates rise, and exports become more expensive thus leading to a downward sloping of the aggregate demand curve.

Therefore, the second statement is correct (True) for saying the economics student was wrong in his statement.

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Suppose the price of a bag of jelly beans rises from $1.60 to $2.00, with the result that sales of jelly beans falls from 120 ba
andrey2020 [161]

Answer:

The elasticity of demand for jelly beans is 1.80

Explanation:

The elasticity of demand is the principle of economic which is defined as the measure that extent the consumer response to the changes in the quantity demanded as a consequence of price change and being others factors are equal.

Computing the elasticity of demand for jelly beans as:

Elasticity of demand = Price Change / Quantity Change

where

Price Change is as:

Price = $1.60 + $2.00

= $3.60

Quantity change is as:

Quantity = 120 + 80

= 200

So,

Elasticity of demand = $3.60 / 200 × 100

Elasticity of demand = 1.80

5 0
3 years ago
which of the following countries had the highest per capita GDP in 2013? Iran, Malaysia, Poland, Turkey
Mazyrski [523]

Answer: Poland

Among the four countries, Iran, Malaysia, Poland and Turkey, Poland had the highest per capita GDP in 2013 and ranked 61st with $21,00 per capita GDP.  Malaysia ranked 74th at $16,900. Turkey ranked 85th at $15,000 and Iran ranked 97th at $13,100.


7 0
3 years ago
A(n) ____ might be represented with a single-valued attribute. Group of answer choices person’s phone number(s) person's driver'
kolezko [41]

Answer:

person's driver's license number

Explanation:

A single valued attribute means that a person or a thing can only have a single value for that attribute, for example, you can have only one social security number since having more than one is illegal.

Following the same logic, you could only have one driver's license number, since you can only have one license.

But you can have more than one cellphone, you can also have more than one car, and finally you may have attended more than one college.

4 0
3 years ago
Henry Crouch's law office has traditionally ordered ink refills 55 units at a time. The firm estimates that carrying cost is 40%
defon

Answer:

Its action would be optimal given an ordering cost of $28.31 per order

Explanation:

According to the given data we have the following:

economic order quantity, EOQ= 55 units

annual demand, D=235

holding cost per one unit per year, H=40%×$11=$4.4

ordering cost, S=?

In order to calculate the ordering cost we would have to use the following formula:

EOQ=√(<u>2×D×S)</u>

                (H)

Hence, S=<u>(EOQ)∧2×H</u>

                     2×D

           S=<u>(55)∧2×4.4</u>

                   2×235

          S=<u>13,310</u>

                470

          S=$28.31

Its action would be optimal given an ordering cost of $28.31 per order

4 0
3 years ago
Suppose that an investor with a 10-year investment horizon is considering purchasing a 20-year 8% coupon bond selling for $900.
leonid [27]

Answer:

8.67%

Explanation:

PMT (Semi-annual coupon) = par value*coupon rate/2 = 1,000*8%/2 = 40

N (No of coupons paid) = 10*2 = 20

Rate (Semi-annual reinvestment rate) = 7%/2 = 3.5%

Future value of reinvested coupons = FV(PMT, N, Rate)

Future value of reinvested coupons = FV(40, 20, 3.5%)

Future value of reinvested coupons = $1,131.19

FV = 1,000

PMT (Semi-annual coupons) = 40

N (No of coupons pending) = 10*2 = 20

Rate (Semi-annual YTM) = 9%/2 = 4.5%

Price of the bond after 10 years = PV(FV, PMT, N, RATE)

Price of the bond after 10 years = PV(1000, 40, 20, 4.5%)

Price of the bond after 10 years = $934.96

Total amount after 10 years = Future value of reinvested coupons + Price of the bond after 10 years

Total amount after 10 years = $1,131.19 + $934.96

Total amount after 10 years = $2,066.15

Amount invested (Price of the bond now) = $900.

Total Annual Return = [(Total amount after 10 years / Amount invested)^(1/holding period)] -1

Total Annual Return = [($2,066.15/$900)^(1/10)] -1

Total Annual Return = [2.295722^0.1] - 1

Total Annual Return = 1.08665561792 - 1

Total Annual Return = 0.08665561792

Total Annual Return = 8.67%

7 0
3 years ago
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