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Effectus [21]
3 years ago
12

How do you solve this? cosθ-tanθcosθ=0

Mathematics
1 answer:
laila [671]3 years ago
4 0
First, lets note that tan(\theta)\cdot cos(\theta)=sin(\theta). This leads us with the following problem:

cos(\theta)-sin(\theta)=0

Lets add sin on both sides, and we get:

cos(\theta)=sin(\theta)

Now if we divide with sin on both sides we get:

\frac{cos(\theta)}{sin(\theta)}=1

Now we can remember how cot is defined, it is (cos/sin). So we have:

cot(\theta)=1

Now take the inverse of cot and we get:
\theta=cot^{-1}(1)=\pi\cdot n+ \frac{\pi}{4} , \quad n\in \mathbb{Z}

In general we have cot^{-1}(1)=\frac{\pi}{4}, the reason we have to add pi times n, is because it is a function that has multiple answers, see the picture:

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Answer:

As x → -∞, f(x) → 0.5; as x → ∞, f(x) → 0.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Given function:

f(x)=\dfrac{4x-7}{8x+8}

<u>Asymptote</u>: a line that the curve gets infinitely close to, but never touches.

As the degrees of the numerator and denominator of the given function are equal, there is a horizontal asymptote at  y=\dfrac{a}{b}  (where a is the leading coefficient of the numerator, and b is the leading coefficient of the denominator).  This is the end behavior.

\textsf{Horizontal asymptote}:y=\dfrac{4}{8}=\dfrac{1}{2}

This is because as x \rightarrow \infty the -7 of the numerator and the +8 of the denominator become negligible.  Therefore, we are left with:

f(x) \rightarrow \dfrac{4x}{8x}

Therefore:

\textsf{As }\:x \rightarrow - \infty, f(x) \rightarrow 0.5

\textsf{As }\:x \rightarrow \infty, f(x) \rightarrow 0.5

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Answer:

C) y = 2|x - 3| - 1

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plug these values into the equation:

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