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Effectus [21]
3 years ago
12

How do you solve this? cosθ-tanθcosθ=0

Mathematics
1 answer:
laila [671]3 years ago
4 0
First, lets note that tan(\theta)\cdot cos(\theta)=sin(\theta). This leads us with the following problem:

cos(\theta)-sin(\theta)=0

Lets add sin on both sides, and we get:

cos(\theta)=sin(\theta)

Now if we divide with sin on both sides we get:

\frac{cos(\theta)}{sin(\theta)}=1

Now we can remember how cot is defined, it is (cos/sin). So we have:

cot(\theta)=1

Now take the inverse of cot and we get:
\theta=cot^{-1}(1)=\pi\cdot n+ \frac{\pi}{4} , \quad n\in \mathbb{Z}

In general we have cot^{-1}(1)=\frac{\pi}{4}, the reason we have to add pi times n, is because it is a function that has multiple answers, see the picture:

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3 years ago
2.
Gekata [30.6K]

Answer:

A. A(n) = 150 • (0.74)^n–1 ; 33.29 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a geometric sequence.

a%5B1%5D=1.5m=150cm, r=0.74

The formula is

a%5Bn%5D=a%5B1%5Dr%5E%28n-1%29

Just substitute a1 = 150cm and r = 0.74

a%5Bn%5D=150%280.74%29%5E%28n-1%29

That's the rule.

For the second part, substitute n = 6

cm.

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3 years ago
Pls someone answer this...​
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Answer:

p=10

Step-by-step explanation:

3p+10+5p=90

8p+10=90

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