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Effectus [21]
3 years ago
12

How do you solve this? cosθ-tanθcosθ=0

Mathematics
1 answer:
laila [671]3 years ago
4 0
First, lets note that tan(\theta)\cdot cos(\theta)=sin(\theta). This leads us with the following problem:

cos(\theta)-sin(\theta)=0

Lets add sin on both sides, and we get:

cos(\theta)=sin(\theta)

Now if we divide with sin on both sides we get:

\frac{cos(\theta)}{sin(\theta)}=1

Now we can remember how cot is defined, it is (cos/sin). So we have:

cot(\theta)=1

Now take the inverse of cot and we get:
\theta=cot^{-1}(1)=\pi\cdot n+ \frac{\pi}{4} , \quad n\in \mathbb{Z}

In general we have cot^{-1}(1)=\frac{\pi}{4}, the reason we have to add pi times n, is because it is a function that has multiple answers, see the picture:

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last week rafael drove m miles. this week he drove 153 miles. using m, write an expression for the total number of miles he drov
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The expression for the total number of miles he drove in the two weeks is m + 153

<h3>How to determine the expression for the total number of miles he drove in the two weeks?</h3>

The given parameters are

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