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8090 [49]
3 years ago
15

X² + y² = 34x + y =8​

Mathematics
1 answer:
Nataly [62]3 years ago
4 0

Step-by-step explanation:

{x}^{2}  +  {y}^{2}  = 34 \\ x + y = 8 \\ x = 8 - y \\ substitute \: x \: in \\  {x}^{2}  +  {y}^{2}  = 34 \\  {(8 - 4)}^{2}  +  {y}^{2}  = 34 \\  {(8 - 4) }^{2}  =  {y}^{2}  - 16y + 64 \\   {y}^{2}  - 16y + 64 +  {y}^{2}  = 34 \\  {2y}^{2}  - 16y + 64 = 34 \\ {2y}^{2}  - 16y + 64  - 34 = 0 \\  {2y}^{2}  - 16y + 30 = 0 \\ 2 {y}^{2}  - 6y - 10y + 30 = 0 \\ (2 {y}^{2}  - 6y) - (10y + 30) = 0 \\ 2y(y - 3) - 10(y - 3) = 0 \\ (2y - 10)(y - 3) \\ 2y = 10 \\ y  = \frac{10}{2}  \\ y = 5 \\ or \\ y = 3 \\ if \: y = 5 \:  \: x = 3 \\ if \: y = 3 \:  \:  x = 5

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Hi, can someone please help me out with this problem? thanks in advance.
kiruha [24]

Answer:

The following is an income statement using the Contribution format.

...........................Income Statement for Rivieremia Corp................................

Sales ........................................................................$1,500,000

Less Variable Costs................................................<u>($1,200,000)</u>

Contribution Margin..............................................$300,000

Less Fixed Costs....................................................<u>($200,000)</u>

Operating Income .................................................$100,000

Less Tax...................................................................<u>.($10,000)</u>

Net Income...............................................................$90,000

Tax = 10% * 100,000 = $10,000

Proving breakeven is $1,000,000.

The breakeven point for a company can be calculated by dividing the Fixed cost by the contribution margin ratio.

Contribution margin ratio = Contribution margin / Sales

= 300,000/1,500,000

= 20%

= Fixed Cost/ Contribution Margin ratio

= 200,000/20%

= $1,000,000

Degree of Operating Leverage = Contribution Margin/ Operating Income

= 300,000/100,000

= 3

7 0
3 years ago
The numbers of beads on 500 handcrafted bead
pashok25 [27]
 <span>The numbers of beads on 500 handcrafted bead necklaces follow a normal distribution whose mean is 24 beads and standard deviation is 4 beads. 
</span>so....
<span>About 24 necklaces have more than 28 beads. </span>
<span>About 48 necklaces have more than 28 beads. </span>
<span>About 80 necklaces have more than 28 beads. </span>
About 96 necklaces have more than 28 beads<span>

</span> <span>About 80 necklaces have more than 28 beads. 
</span><span>
Z score is 28-24/4=1 
(1-.8413)=0.1587 

500*0.1587=79.35~80

i did this like 2 or 3 years ago .</span>
7 0
3 years ago
Solve the equation below for x. 5x- 2 = -7 What is x=_____
Sati [7]

Answer:

x = -1

Step-by-step explanation:

Start with adding 2 to -7

-7 + 2

=-5

Then divide by 5

-5/5

=-1

6 0
3 years ago
Solve for y.<br> 5(v+2) = -2(7v-3) + 9v<br> Simplify your answer as much as possible
sveticcg [70]

Answer:

v=-2/5 hope this is helpful

5 0
3 years ago
A study was conducted to determine whether magnets were effective in treating pain. The values represent measurements of pain us
gregori [183]

Answer and Step-by-step explanation: The null and alternative hypothesis for this test are:

H_{0}: s_{1}^{2} = s_{2}^{2}

H_{a}: s_{1}^{2} > s_{2}^{2}

To test it, use F-test statistics and compare variances of each treatment.

Calculate F-value:

F=\frac{s^{2}_{1}}{s^{2}_{2}}

F=\frac{1.26^{2}}{0.93^{2}}

F=\frac{1.5876}{0.8649}

F = 1.8356

The <u>critical value of F</u> is given by a F-distribution table with:

degree of freedom (row): 20 - 1 = 19

degree of freedom (column): 20 - 1 = 19

And a significance level: α = 0.05

F_{critical} = 2.2341

Comparing both values of F:

1.856 < 2.2341

i.e. F-value calculated is less than F-value of the table.

Therefore, failed to reject H_{0}, meaning there is <u>no sufficient data to support the claim</u> that sham treatment have pain reductions which vary more than for those using magnets treatment.

4 0
3 years ago
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