Answer:
Substitution Effect outweighs Income Effect ; Labour Supply Curve between wages will be upward sloping. OR :-
Income Effect outweighs Substitution Effect ; Labour Supply Curve between wages will be backward bending
Explanation:
Relationship between wage rate & labour supply can be explained by two effects :
- Substitution Effect : Higher wage means more opportunity cost of leisure, so labourer would substitute leisure by working hours. This would imply increased labour supply.
- Income Effect : Higher wage means more income. At higher income, consumer demands more of all goods, including leisure. So that would imply labourer preferring more leisure, decreased labour supply.
Wage rate change from $20 to $25 is a case of wage rate increase
If substitution effect > income effect, labour supply would increase as a result of wage rise ( from $20 to $25). So, the labour supply curve would be upward sloping
If income effect > substitution effect, labour supply would decrease as a result of wage rise ( from $20 to $25). So, the labour supply curve would be backward bending
Answer:
the YTM is 9.38 %.
Explanation:
Bond Prices in most countries is expressed per $100. We shall use this as the Price for the bond in question.
Then the Yield to Maturity (YTM), r of the Bond can be determined as follows
Pv = - $103
pmt = ($100 × 9.80) ÷ 2 = $4.90
p/yr = 2
n = (14 - 2) × 2 = 24
Fv = $100
r = ?
Using a Financial Calculator, the Yield to Maturity (YTM), r is 9.38 %
Answer:
monetarist approach
Explanation:
Monetarism relates to the school of thought that prioritizes the function of government agencies in regulating the number of resources in circulation in monetary economics. Monetarist theory argues that differences in the currency supply have significant short-term and longer-term impacts on federal output and price rates.
If a country's money supply decreases, business activity will rise, as per monetarist theory; the opposite is also correct. The monetarist philosophy is driven by a standard equation, MV= PQ, in which M will be the money supply, V is just the pace and P refers to the price of commodities, and Q is the sum of commodities.
Answer:
$0
Explanation:
According to US GAAP the reduction in the value of the asset due to a decrease in the fair value. It means when fair value of the asset is reduced than the book value of the asset.
Amortized Cost / Book value = $50,000
Market Value = $53,000
Discounted Value = $51,000
There is no Impairment loss on this asset as the fair market value is more than the book value of the asset.
Answer: Positive, Normative
Explanation: Positive economics is based on facts and objects that can be verified. While, normative economics is based on value based judgement that are difficult to verify.
Making a prediction today about the world's population in twenty years <em>based on current growth trends</em> is an example of <em>positive economics</em>.
<em>Advising</em> the residents of a town to choose a toll road over a freeway extension due to a limited budget and high trucking usage is an example of <em>normative economics</em>.