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olasank [31]
3 years ago
6

During the​ year, credit sales amounted to​ $820,000. Cash collected on credit sales amounted to​ $780,000, and​ $15,000 has bee

n written off. At the end of the​ year, the company adjusted for bad debts expense using the​ percent-of-sales method and applied a​ rate, based on past​ history, of​ 2.5%. The ending balance in the Allowance for Bad Debts is​ ________.
Business
1 answer:
Katena32 [7]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The ending balance in the Allowance for Bad Debts is​ 20,500 CREDIT

Explanation:

The ending balance of Allowance for bad debts would be the 2.5% of sales

The adjustment is made to get the allowance for Bad Debt match the estimate uncollectible ammounts.

Notice it state <em>"company adjusted for bad debt expense"</em>

This means<u> it debit this account as much as it needed to be</u> to make allowance match the estimate allowance.

The write-off are transaction durign the period. They are irrelevant

So the ending balance is:

<em>2.5% of credit sales of 820,000 = $20,500</em>

It is important to remember that <u>Allowance is a counter-asset account</u>. His <em>normal balance is credit</em>, so the<u> final balance is credit.</u>

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Most home insurance policies cover jewelry for $1,000 and silverware for $2,500 unless items are covered with additional insuran
raketka [301]

Answer:

$8,200

Explanation:

The amount of asset that is not covered under the insurance policy would not be claimable so if the amount of insurance policy that covers jewelry of worth $1000 and silverware of worth $2,500 then the total claimable insurance would be $3500 ($1000 for both Jewelry and $2500 for silverware).

The jewelry stolen is worth $5200 and out of it $4200 is not claimable because $1000 of this is covered under the insurance policy. Likewise the silverware worth of $6500 has been stolen of which $4000 is not claimable because $2500 of this is covered under the insurance policy.

The claim that would be not covered under the insurance policy would be:

Non claimable insurance amount = ($5,200 - $1,000) + ($6,500 - $2,500)

= $8,200

7 0
3 years ago
A government began 2013 with a budget deficit and a trade deficit. During the year, the government changed its policy and is now
ddd [48]

Answer:

the exchange rate and the trade deficit to decrease.

Explanation:

A deficit can be defined as an amount by which money, falls short of its expected or required value.

Generally, deficit in financial accounting is usually as a result of expense exceeding revenue or revenue falling below expenses at a specific period of time.

For instance, when liabilities exceeds assets or import exceeds export there would be a deficit in the financial account.

Generally, a deficit on the current account ultimately implies that the value of goods and services exported is lower than the value of goods and services being imported in a particular country.

In 2013, government began with a budget deficit and a trade deficit. During the year, the government changed its policy and is now running a budget surplus.

Hence, this change in policy will cause the exchange rate and the trade deficit to decrease if all other factors hold constant

7 0
3 years ago
Nivea works for Bonbon, a fair-trade chocolate company based in California. In addition to being recognized for the delicious, l
skad [1K]

Answer:

c. brand insistence

Explanation:

Since in the given situation it is mentioned that the 83% of the loyal customers could not find the bonbon products at local stores so they will ordered online instead of purchasing the substitute goods as in the brand insistence refer the stage of the brand loyalty where the purchase would accept no alternatives and they will search for the particular brand only

5 0
2 years ago
A company pays each of its two office employees each Friday at the rate of $210 per day for a five-day week that begins on Monda
marusya05 [52]

Answer:

Correct answer is:

Debit Salaries Expense $840

Credit Salaries Payable $840

Explanation:

2 employees each paid at $ 210 per day so daily salary expense is $210*2 = $420.

The accounting period ends on Tuesday and both employees work for Monday and Tuesday so the 2 days salaries expense is $420*2= $840.

As the salaries are paid on every Friday so there is a liability on a company for the 2 days salary payable to be recorded on accounting period close date i.e Tuesday.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Calculate the gross margin in both dollars and percentage for this swim department if net sales are $1,150,000 and cost of goods
yawa3891 [41]

The gross margin ratio is also known as the gross profit margin or the gross profit percentage.<span>

The gross margin ratio is computed by dividing the company's gross profit dollars by its net sales dollars.</span>

 swim department net sales--------------------- $1,150,000

 cost of goods sold<span> -------------------------------- $638,400</span>

  This means its gross profit is $511,600  (net sales of $1,150,000 minus its cost of goods sold of $638,400) and its gross margin ratio is 44% (gross profit of $511,600  divided by net sales of $1,150,000).

6 0
3 years ago
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