Please write out the full question so we can do our best to assist you in finding the most logical answer.
Hope this helps!
Answer:
D) 1/36
Step-by-step explanation:
You are trying to roll a 3 the first time, and then a 5 the second time. This means that order matters.
It is given to you, that you are rolling a standard die (6-sides). The dice is ordered in the following: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
The first time, you are rolling for a 3. Note that there is only one 3 in the sequence, so your chance of rolling a 3 is 1 out of 6: 1/6.
The second time, you are rolling for a 5. Note that there is only one 5 in the sequence, so your chance of rolling a 5 is 1 out of 6: 1/6.
Next, multiply the two fractions together to find the probability of rolling a 3 and then a 5:
1/6 x 1/6 = (1 x 1)/(6 x 6) = 1/36
D) 1/36 is your answer.
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sides of right angle triangle follows Pythagoras theorem
a^2 + b^2 = c^2
where a, b and c are sides of triangle
if you check, option 3 follow this. so answer is option 3
Answer:
cos(x) = square root 2 over 2; tan(x) = 1
Step-by-step explanation:
was, before it was rationalized,
Therefore,
The side opposite the reference angle measures 1, the hypotenuse measures square root 2. That makes the reference angle a 45 degree angle. From there we can determine that the side adjacent to the reference angle also has a measure of 1. Therefore,
and
since tangent is side opposite (1) over side adjacent (1),
tan(x) = 1
Answer:
B is the correct
Step-by-step explanation:
choose as brinliest
