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Rzqust [24]
3 years ago
11

Why does water wet glass​

Physics
1 answer:
Artyom0805 [142]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

due to adhesive forces.

Explanation:

every molecule has two types of forces

1) cohesive force

  (attachment of molecule with another molecule of same kind)

2) adhesive force

  (attachment of molecule with another molecule of different kind)

water has both cohesive and  adhesive forces. by cohesive force a water molecule attaches with another water molecule and by adhesive force a water molecule attaches with glass or any thing else .

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Answer: B superconductors

Explanation:

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3 years ago
7 places that carbon exists
BigorU [14]
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7 0
4 years ago
Which is a solvent in a cup of juice drink?
RoseWind [281]

Answer:

D. water because the ice cubes the powdered juice and the sugar can be dissolve in water so the solvent is water

3 0
3 years ago
8-14 A Cu-30% Zn alloy tensile bar has a strain-hardening coefficient of 0.50. The bar, which has an initial diameter of 1 cm an
77julia77 [94]

Answer:

The true stress at true strain 0.05cm/cm is 80MPa

Explanation:

Given that

the strength coefficient is K

true strain is ε

strain hardening exponent is n

initial diameter of bar is d = 1cm, (10mm)

tensile force is F

engineering stress(S) = 120

the engineering stress(S) = \frac{F}{\frac{\pi }{4}(d^2) }

To find force (F) =

                    120 = \frac{F}{\frac{\pi }{4}(100^{2} )}

                     F = 120 * (π/4) * (100)

                     F = 9425N

Calculate the true strain  (ε) = In (l₀ / l₁)

where

l₀ =  initial length of the metallic bar = 3cm

l₁ = final length of metallic bar = 3.5cm

ε = In (3.5 / 3)

  = In 1.1667

  = 0.154cm/cm

Calculate the true stress (σ) at fracture point

          = \frac{F}{\frac{\pi }{4}(d^2) }}

tensile force is F and final diameter of bar is d₁ (d in the eqn)

Substitute 9425 N for F and 0.926 cm (9.26mm) for d₁ (d in the eqn)

σ = \frac{9425}{\frac{\pi }{4}(9.26^2) }}

   = 140MPa

To find the strength coefficient (K) of the material bar

K = \frac{140}{\sqrt{0.154} }

K = \frac{140}{0.3925}

   = 356.75MPa

To calculate the true stress σ true strain of 0.05cm/cm

K  = 356.75MPa

σ = 356.75(0.05)^0^.^5

  = 356.75 ( 0.2236)

  = 80MPa

The true stress at true strain 0.05cm/cm is 80MPa

6 0
3 years ago
A bullet with mass m = 0.1 kg grams hits a ballistic pendulum with length L = 3 meters and mass M = 2 kg and lodges in it. When
Mnenie [13.5K]

Answer:

e)     v₁ = 29.7 m / s

Explanation:

Let's propose the solution of the problem, let's start at the moment

Initial

        p₀ = m v₁

Final

     p_{f} = (m + M) v

The moment is preserved

      p₀ =  p_{f}

      m v₁ = (m + M) v

      v = m / (m + M) v₁        (1)

a) energy is conserved

Let's look for kinetic energy

Initial

      K₀ = ½ m v₁²

Final

      K_{f} = ½ (m + M) v²

Let's replace v

     K_{f} = ½ (m + M) [m / (m + M) v₁]²

      K_{f} = ½ m² / (m + M) v₁²

Let's look for the relationship of these energies

     Ko / K_{f} = ½ m v₁² / (½ m² / (m + M) v₁²)

     Ko / K_{f}= (m + M) / m = (1 + M / m)²

The kinetic energy changes therefore it is not conserved in the process, the missing energy is converted into potential heat energy during the crash

b) The impulse is conserved because the system is defined as formed by the two bodies and the externals are of action and reaction, so for the complete system the sum is zero and the moment does not change in value

c) in this case the system is already formed by the two bodies and since there is no rubbing the mechanical energy is conserved, transforming from kinetics to potential

d) when the pendulum oscillates the speed changes from v to zero, so the moment is not conserved, this is because there is an external force acting on the system, the force of gravity

e) For this part let's start at the end of the movement

It is system (bullet + block) moves, energy is conserved

Final. Highest point

          Em_{f} = U = (m + M) g h

Initial. Lowest point

          Em₀ = K = ½ (m + M) v2

          Em₀ =  Em_{f}

          ½ (m + M) v² = (m + M) g h

          v = √ 2gh

Let's look for the height (h) by trigonometry

         Cos 15 = x / L

          h = L-x

          h = L - L cos 15

          h = L (1- cos 15)

We replace

          v = √ (2gL (1- cos 15))

Now we use equation (1) of momentum conservation

         v = m / (m + M) v1

         v₁ = (m + M) / m v

         v1 = (0.1 +2.0) /0.1 RA (2 9.8 3 (1- cos 15))

         v₁ = 21 √ (2.00)

        v₁ = 29.7 m / s

6 0
3 years ago
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