All categories

3 years ago

Find the HCF of 120 and 210.

Mathematics

2 answers:

Artemon [7]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

120 = 2³ × 3 × 5

210 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 7

HCF(120 ; 210) = 2 × 3 × 5 = 30

MAXImum [283]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

210=120x1+90

120=90x1+30

90=30x3+0

You might be interested in

UPS charges $7 for the first pound, and $0.20 for each additional pound. FedEx charges $5 for the first pound and $0.30 for each

grigory [225]

Answer:

1. 20 pounds

2. $11

Step-by-step explanation:

To set this up, you have to use a system of equations. It would look like this, where $p$ is pounds and $t$ is total cost:

UPS: $t=7+0.20p$

FedEx: $t=5+0.30p$

In order to solve a system of equations you must either a.) graph it, or b.) set them equal to each other.

If you graph it, the answer is where the two lines intersect.

If you set them equal to each other, solve it.

I will set them equal to each other in this:

$7+0.20p=5+0.30p$

The first step in a problem like this, where there's the same variable on both sides, is to subtract the smaller variable from both sides. In this case, it is $0.20x$ . That would turn the equation into:

$7=5+0.10p$

After that, you must solve it like a regular two-step equation.

Start by subtracting 5 from both sides:

$2=0.10p$

Now, you must divide both sides by $0.10$ .

$\frac{2}{0.10}=\frac{0.10p}{0.10}$

That would give us:

$20=p$

This means that in order for the prices to be the same, the package must be 20 pounds.

Now in order to find the total cost, you must plug 20 into one of the equations. It doesn't matter which, since they both equal the same. I will plug it into the FedEx equation:

$t=5+0.30(20)$

Now you can just use a calculator and solve that or do it by hand. Multiply 0.30 by 20, to get 6, then add 5, which equals 11.

You should get: $t=11$ .

This means that the total cost, when the costs are the same for both FedEx and UPS, is $11.

3 0

3 years ago

Tobin is solving the equation 3 (x minus 1.25) = 11.25. His work is shown below.

Bezzdna [24]

Answer:

tobin should have divided by three

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Reinhardt Furniture Company has 40,000 shares of cumulative preferred 2% stock, $150 par and 100,000 shares of $5 par common sto

Ann [662]

Answer:

for year 1

common stock = $1.75 per share

preferred stock = Zero

for year 2

common stock = $4.25 per share

preferred stock = $0.3 per share

for year 3

common stock = $3 per share

preferred stock = $2 per share

Step-by-step explanation:

step 1

preferred stock value = (40000 shares * $150) = $6000000

common stock value = (100000 shares * $5) = $500000

step 2

For year 1:

Dividend on preferred stock;

$\frac{6000000 * 2}{100}$ = $120000

But total dividend in the question was $70000 therefore total amount of dividend on cumulative preferred stock is $70000.

hence, dividend per share

$= \frac{70000}{40000 shares}$ = $1.75 per share

Dividend on common stock;

70,000 - 70,000 = Zero

as total dividend distributed in year 1 is insufficient for cumulative preferred stock therefore no dividend will be paid on common stock.

For year 2:

Dividend on cumulative preferred stock;

$\frac{6000000 * 2}{100}$ = $120000

extra dividend of year 1 ($120000 - $70000) = $50000

Thus total dividend on cumulative preferred stock

($120000 + $50000) = $170000

So dividend per share

$\frac{170000}{40000\ shares}$ = $4.25 per share

Dividend on common stock;

($200000 – $170000) = $30000

dividend per share

$\frac{30000}{100000\ shares}$ = $0.3 per share

For year 3:

Dividend on cumulative preferred stock;

$\frac{6000000 * 2}{100}$ = $120000

total dividend on cumulative preferred stock $120000

dividend per share

$\frac{120000}{40000 shares}$ = $3 per share

No dividend was extra in the year 2 therefore only available dividend of this year will be paid.

Dividend on common stock;

($320000 – $120000) = $200000

dividend per share

$\frac{200000}{100000\ shares}$ = $2 per share

3 0

3 years ago

Pls help i need help will give correct brainlyest

Rufina [12.5K]

Answer:

here you go

Step-by-step explanation:

1 is = 2 is >

7 0

3 years ago

ike tossed a coin several times and recorded the number of heads and tails in the following table: Coin Experiment Side of Coin

UkoKoshka [18]

The correct answer is 0.48 because as you can tell the probability of it landing on heads is just a little bit below the probability of getting tails. Hope I helped!

8 0

3 years ago