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lesya [120]
3 years ago
13

Which of these functions has an inverse function? Select all that apply.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Goshia [24]3 years ago
3 0
So we want to know which of the following functions has an inverse function. So an inverse function is a function that "reverses" another function. We need to put y instead of x and x instead of y. So for the first case: y=x is x=y so this function has an inverse function. y=x^2 is x=y^2 so y=sqrt(x). y=x^3 is x=y^3 so y=∛x. y=x^4 so x=y^4, y=4√x or forth root of x. So all of our functions have an inverse function. 
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Solve the equation on the interval 0 less than or equals theta less than 2 pi 0≤θ<2π. 2 cosine theta plus 1 equals 0 2cosθ+1=
VARVARA [1.3K]

Answer:

θ = 2π/3 or 5π/3

Step-by-step explanation:

2 cosθ + 1= 0

when  + 1 goes to R H S Side than it becomes negative by transposition   method

2 cos = -1

now by dividing by 2 both sides we get

cosθ  =  -\frac{1}{2}

since cosθ is negative

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it means either cosθ lies in 2nd or third quadrant

θ = π - π/3

or

θ = 2π- π/3

so θ = 2π/3 or 5π/3

6 0
3 years ago
For each hour he babysits, Anderson earns $1 more than half of Carey’s hourly rate. Anderson earns $6 per hour. Which equation c
Illusion [34]

Answer: Our required equation would be 6=\dfrac{c}{2}+1

Step-by-step explanation:

Since we have given that

Amount that Anderson earns per hour = $6

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Let the hourly rate of Carey be 'c'.

So, it becomes,

6=\dfrac{c}{2}+1

And the value of c would be

6=\dfrac{c}{2}+1\\\\6-1=\dfrac{c}{2}\\\\5=\dfrac{c}{2}\\\\c=\$10

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5 0
3 years ago
The current temperature of 8"F below zero is 21°F below the high temperature of the day. What is the high temperature for the da
wariber [46]

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24°c

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3 0
3 years ago
A crew will arrive in one week and begin filming a city for a movie. The mayor is desperate to clean the city streets before fil
Zigmanuir [339]

Answer:

See below in bold.

Step-by-step explanation:

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1/200 + 1/400 = 1 /x  where x is the number of hours taken by 2 teams.

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3 years ago
Binomial Theorem, proof
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It follows from the definition of the binomial coefficient:

\dbinom nr=\dfrac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}

So we have

(n+1)\dbinom nr=(n+1)\dfrac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}=(r+1)\dfrac{(n+1)!}{(r+1)!(n-r)!}

That is, (n+1) gets absorbed into the numerator's factorial, and we introduct (r+1) into the denominator. Now, (n+1)-(r+1)=n-r, so we get

(n+1)\dbinom nr=(r+1)\dfrac{(n+1)!}{(r+1)!((n+1)-(r+1))!}=(r+1)\dbinom{n+1}{r+1}

as required.

4 0
3 years ago
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