Answer:
The equation of the line would be y = 4/9x
Step-by-step explanation:
In order to find the equation, we first need to find the slope. We can do this by using the slope equation with the points.
m(slope) = (y2 - y1)/(x2 - x1)
m = (9 - 0)/(4 - 0)
m = 9/4
Now that we have this, we can use point-slope form along with one of the points to get the equation.
y - y1 = m(x -x1)
y - 0 = 4/9(x - 0)
y = 4/9x
Answer:
x + 2 = 3
Step-by-step explanation:
x is always = to 1
We know that there are (4^9)^5 ⋅ 4^0 at the library, so we just need to simplify this to get the answer.
(4^9)^5 ⋅ 4^0
=(4^9)^5×1
=(4^9)^5
=4^9×5
=4^45. As a result, the total number of books at the library is 4^45 books at the library or B is the final answer. Hope it help!
Answer:
8 red marbles.
Step-by-step explanation:
All together we have 40 marbles. The fraction of marbles that are red is 1/5 which means that we should divide the total number of marbles, which is 40 by the denominator ( Bottom number of fraction ) 5 so that we get the number of groups that have 1 red marble in them. In this case we have 8 groups.
40/5=8
You always divide by the denominator ( Bottom number of fraction ) first and then you multiply your answer by the numerator ( Top number of fraction ) .
If each group has 1 red marble in it and we have 8 groups, it means that we have 8 red marbles in the bag.
1 * 8 = 8 red marbles in the bag
If the numerator (number above the fraction line) was more than one, then this would mean that we have more than 1 marble in each group of marbles.
Example:
If we had 3/5 we would have 3 marbles in each group of marbles. This means that instead of doing 1 * 8 we would have to do 3 * 8 = 24. We would have 24 red marbles in the bag.
Easy and quick way if you do not need the explanation:
Another way we could do this is by simply multiplying the fraction ( 1/5 ) by the total number of marbles ( 40 ). This would still give us an answer of 8 red marbles in the bag. 40/5=8, 8*1=8
Don’t let the letter scare you, imagine this as a simple cross product!
(32 × 1) ÷ 8 = m
32 ÷ 8 = m
4 = m
There you go, the solution to this equation is that m = 4!
I really hope this helped, if there’s anything just let me know! ☻
