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dangina [55]
3 years ago
6

Given the line below.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Yanka [14]3 years ago
8 0

We have to write the equation of the line, in point-slope form. Given an identified point (x1, y1) as the point (-2, 2). So that means x1=-2 and y1=2

Value of slope "m" is not given so i will keep using "m" for the slope. In case value of slope m is given in the problem then you can plug that number in place of m.

Point slope formula is given by:

y-y_1=m\left(x-x_1\right)

plug the given values into above formula :


y-\left(2\right)=m\left(x-\left(-2\right)\right)

y-2=m\left(x+2\right)

so the required answer in point slope form is y-2=m\left(x+2\right)

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ine AB passes through points A(–6, 6) and B(12, 3). If the equation of the line is written in slope-intercept form, y = mx + b,
Alja [10]
Y-6=-1/6(x+6)
y = -1/6x +5

m= -1/6
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6 0
3 years ago
7.4 Practice
pickupchik [31]

The simulation of the medicine and the bowler hat are illustrations of probability

  • The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767
  • The probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0
  • The probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281

<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two</h3>

From the question,

  • Numbers 1 to 7 represents the medicine being effective
  • 0, 8 and 9 represents the medicine not being effective

From the simulation, 23 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on at least two

So, the probability is:

p = 23/30

p = 0.767

Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767

<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on none</h3>

From the simulation, 0 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on none

So, the probability is:

p = 0/30

p = 0

Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0

<h3>The probability a bowler hits a headpin</h3>

The probability of hitting a headpin is:

p = 90%

The probability a bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is:

P(x) = nCx * p^x * (1 - p)^(n - x)

So, we have:

P(4) = 5C4 * (90%)^4 * (1 - 90%)^1

P(4) = 0.3281

Hence, the probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281

Read more about probabilities at:

brainly.com/question/25870256

8 0
2 years ago
What is the solution set of this inequality?
Gnoma [55]

Answer:

A.

x\ge \:4

Step-by-step explanation:

8(x-5) -3x\geq -20\\\\\mathrm{Expand\:}8\left(x-5\right)-3x:\quad 5x-40\\\\5x-40\ge \:-20\\\\\mathrm{Add\:}40\mathrm{\:to\:both\:sides}\\\\5x-40+40\ge \:-20+40\\\\Simplify\\\\5x\ge \:20\\\\\mathrm{Divide\:both\:sides\:by\:}5\\\\\frac{5x}{5}\ge \frac{20}{5}\\\\Simplify\\\\x\ge \:4

8 0
3 years ago
For the following right triangle, find the side length x. Round your answer to the nearest hundredth.
Aleksandr-060686 [28]

Answer:

\sqrt{113} = x

Step-by-step explanation:

In right triangles the sum of square length of two legs is equal to square length of hypotenuse:

7^2 + 8^2 = x^2

49 + 64 = x^2 add like terms

113 = x^2 find the root for both sides

\sqrt{113} = x

8 0
2 years ago
Geometry<br><br> heeelp i need help asap i will give 100 points and brainiest.
Anastaziya [24]

Answer:

X=2

Step-by-step explanation:

You can prove the triangle congruent by SAS. First, reflexive property and then isosceles triangle theorem since two side is congruent, the opposite angle is congruent to each other because of that theorem and then cpctc

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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