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3 years ago

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Mathematics

1 answer:

cupoosta [38]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

3/5 or 0.6

Step-by-step explanation:

Here, given the value of tan theta , we want to find the value of sine theta

Mathematically;

tan theta = 0pposite/adjacent

Sine theta = opposite/hypotenuse

Firstly we need the length of the hypotenuse

This can be obtained using the Pythagoras’ theorem which states that the square of the hypotenuse equals sum of the squares of the two other sides.

Let’s call the hypotenuse h

h^2 = 3^2 + 4^2

h^2 = 9 + 16

h^2 = 25

h = √(25)

h = 5

Now from the tan theta, we know that the opposite is 3

Thus, the value of the sine theta = 3/5 or simply 0.6

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Solve. 4 x + 6 < − 6 Thankyou In advance :>

andrew-mc [135]

Answer:

x < -3

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Subtract 6 from both sides.

$4x + 6 - 6 < -6 - 6$
$4x < -12$

Step 2: Divide both sides by 4.

$\frac{4x}{4} < \frac{-12}{4}$
$x < -3$

Therefore, the answer is x < -3.

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3 years ago

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Scilla [17]

Answer: -8-10

Step-by-step explanation:

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2 years ago

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For each given p, let ???? have a binomial distribution with parameters p and ????. Suppose that ???? is itself binomially distr

pshichka [43]

Answer:

See the proof below.

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming this complete question: "For each given p, let Z have a binomial distribution with parameters p and N. Suppose that N is itself binomially distributed with parameters q and M. Formulate Z as a random sum and show that Z has a binomial distribution with parameters pq and M."

Solution to the problem

For this case we can assume that we have N independent variables $X_i$ with the following distribution:

$X_i Bin (1,p) = Be(p)$ bernoulli on this case with probability of success p, and all the N variables are independent distributed. We can define the random variable Z like this:

$Z = \sum_{i=1}^N X_i$

From the info given we know that $N \sim Bin (M,q)$

We need to proof that $Z \sim Bin (M, pq)$ by the definition of binomial random variable then we need to show that:

$E(Z) = Mpq$

$Var (Z) = Mpq(1-pq)$

The deduction is based on the definition of independent random variables, we can do this:

$E(Z) = E(N) E(X) = Mq (p)= Mpq$

And for the variance of Z we can do this:

$Var(Z)_ = E(N) Var(X) + Var (N) [E(X)]^2$

$Var(Z) =Mpq [p(1-p)] + Mq(1-q) p^2$

And if we take common factor $Mpq$ we got:

$Var(Z) =Mpq [(1-p) + (1-q)p]= Mpq[1-p +p-pq]= Mpq[1-pq]$

And as we can see then we can conclude that $Z \sim Bin (M, pq)$

8 0

3 years ago

Substitution method x-7y=-9 -x+8y=10

max2010maxim [7]

Answer:

x = -2, y=1

Step-by-step explanation:

x-7y=-9---------------------equation 1

-x+8y=10-------------------equation 2

From equation 1, make x the subject of formula

x=7y-9----------------------equation 3

substituting x=7y-9 in equation 2,

-(7y-9)+8y=10

Expanding bracket

-7y+9+8y=10

Collecting like terms

8y-7y=10-9

y=1

substituting y=1 in 3

x=7(1)-9

x=7-9

x=-2

7 0

2 years ago

For the given triangles select the lengths of the sides.

aivan3 [116]

Answer:

v=3

u=6

x=2√2

y=2√2

Step-by-step explanation:

First triangle :

tanΦ=v/3√3

tan30=v/3√3

(√3)/3=v/(3√3)

Cross multiply

(√3)/3 x 3√3=v

(√3 x 3√3)/3=v

(3√9)/3=v

(3x3)/3=v

9/3=v

3=v

v=3

Sin30=v/u

0.5=3/u

Cross multiply

0.5xu=3

0.5u=3

Divide both sides by 0.5

0.5u/0.5=3/0.5

u=6

Second triangle :

sin45=x/4

Cross multiply

x=4 x sin45

x=4 x (√2)/2

x=2√2

Cos45=y/4

Cross multiply

4 x Cos45=y

4 x (√2)/2=y

(4√2)/2=y

2√2=y

y=2√2

5 0

3 years ago